Which of the following statements about Culex larvae is correct?
Horrock's apparatus is used to measure?
Which indicator is used in Horroch's apparatus?
In water testing from a well using Horrock's apparatus, blue color appears from the 4th cup onwards. What is the amount of bleaching powder required to disinfect 75000 litres of water?
Waste Sharps should be disposed in ?
Which category waste is disposed in red bags?
Which of the following is not typically incinerated?
In immediate disaster response management (first 24-48 hours), which of the following is not typically practiced?
Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?
According to the ICDS scheme, what is the recommended population range for establishing one Anganwadi centre in rural areas?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Which of the following statements about Culex larvae is correct?
- A. Rest parallel to surface water
- B. Long Palmate hair
- C. Siphon tube present (Correct Answer)
- D. All are false
Explanation: ***Siphon tube present*** - **Culex larvae** possess a prominent **siphon tube** at their posterior end, which is used for breathing by extending to the water surface. - This **siphon tube** is a key morphological feature that helps distinguish them from *Anopheles* larvae. *Rest parallel to surface water* - **Anopheles larvae** typically rest parallel to the water surface because they lack a long siphon and obtain oxygen directly through spiracles on their dorsal surface. - **Culex larvae**, due to their siphon tube, hang head-down at an angle from the water surface. *Long Palmate hair* - **Palmate hairs** are characteristic structures found on the abdomen of **Anopheles larvae** that help them float horizontally at the water surface. - **Culex larvae** do not possess well-developed palmate hairs. *All are false* - This statement is incorrect because the presence of a **siphon tube** is a defining characteristic of **Culex larvae**.
Question 62: Horrock's apparatus is used to measure?
- A. Wind velocity
- B. Humidity
- C. Chlorine demand (Correct Answer)
- D. Cooling power
Explanation: ***Chlorine demand*** - Horrock's apparatus is specifically designed for determining the **chlorine demand** of water, which is the amount of **chlorine** consumed by impurities before a **free chlorine residual** is established. - This apparatus is crucial in **water treatment processes** to ensure effective **disinfection** by adjusting chlorine dosages. *Wind velocity* - **Wind velocity** is typically measured using an **anemometer**, a device with rotating cups or a propeller that spins in response to wind. - Horrock's apparatus has no components or mechanisms for detecting or quantifying wind movement. *Humidity* - **Humidity** is measured by instruments such as **hygrometers** or **psychrometers**, which assess the amount of water vapor in the air. - These devices utilize properties like **condensation** or changes in **electrical resistance**, which are unrelated to the function of Horrock's apparatus. *Cooling power* - **Cooling power** refers to the rate at which heat can be removed from a system and is measured using devices like **catathermometers** or specialized **calorimeters**. - Horrock's apparatus is a **chemical testing device** and does not have the capability to measure thermal properties or cooling rates.
Question 63: Which indicator is used in Horroch's apparatus?
- A. Potassium permanganate
- B. Bleaching powder
- C. Soda-lime
- D. Starch iodine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Starch iodine*** - Horroch's apparatus is specifically designed for testing the **sterilizing efficiency of hypochlorite solutions** in dairies. - **Starch iodine** (starch-iodide paper) is used as an indicator because it reacts with residual free chlorine to produce a **blue-black color**, which confirms that adequate free chlorine is present for effective sterilization. - The principle: Free chlorine oxidizes iodide to iodine, which then reacts with starch to give the characteristic blue color. *Bleaching powder* - **Bleaching powder** (calcium hypochlorite) is the active ingredient in hypochlorite sterilizing solutions being tested, not an indicator itself. - It's the substance whose sterilizing efficacy is being evaluated using the apparatus. *Soda-lime* - **Soda-lime** is primarily used as an absorbent for **carbon dioxide (CO2)** and other acidic gases in various laboratory and anesthetic applications. - It has no role as an indicator in Horroch's apparatus for testing hypochlorite solutions. *Potassium permanganate* - **Potassium permanganate** is a strong oxidizing agent often used as an indicator in redox titrations, as its deep purple color disappears when reduced. - It is not suitable for indicating residual chlorine in Horroch's test, which specifically relies on the starch-iodine reaction.
Question 64: In water testing from a well using Horrock's apparatus, blue color appears from the 4th cup onwards. What is the amount of bleaching powder required to disinfect 75000 litres of water?
- A. 1600 gm
- B. 2000 gm
- C. 1300 gm
- D. 100 gm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***100 gm*** - In **Horrock's apparatus** test, blue color appearing from the 4th cup indicates a **chlorine demand of 0.4 ppm (0.4 mg/L)** for the water sample. - **Total chlorine required** = 0.4 mg/L × 75,000 L = **30,000 mg = 30 gm** of pure chlorine. - Standard bleaching powder contains **30% available chlorine**, so: **Bleaching powder needed = 30 gm ÷ 0.30 = 100 gm**. - This is the scientifically accurate amount for disinfecting 75,000 liters of water with 0.4 ppm chlorine demand. *1000 gm* - This represents a **10-fold excess** over the actual requirement of 100 gm based on the measured chlorine demand. - Using 1000 gm would result in severe **over-chlorination** (4 ppm instead of 0.4 ppm), causing strong unpleasant taste, odor, and potential health concerns. *1600 gm* - This amount represents **16 times the required dose**, leading to dangerously high chlorine levels in the water. - Such excessive chlorination would make the water unpalatable and potentially toxic to consumers. *2000 gm* - This represents a **20-fold excess**, providing extreme and harmful over-disinfection. - Such excessive amounts could lead to **chlorine toxicity** and would be wasteful and harmful to consumers. *1300 gm* - This amount exceeds the calculated requirement by **13 times**, providing unnecessary and harmful over-disinfection. - The precise calculation based on **0.4 ppm chlorine demand** and **75,000 L volume** yields exactly **100 gm**, not 1300 gm.
Question 65: Waste Sharps should be disposed in ?
- A. Black bag
- B. Yellow bag (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Blue bag
Explanation: ***Yellow bag (Historical answer per BMW Rules 1998)*** - Under the **Biomedical Waste Management Rules 1998** (applicable at the time of NEET-PG 2015), **sharps waste** including needles, syringes, and scalpels were disposed in **yellow puncture-proof containers**. - This was the correct answer when this question was asked in the 2015 examination. - **Current Guidelines (BMW Rules 2016):** Sharps are now disposed in **white/translucent puncture-proof containers**, NOT yellow bags. Yellow bags are currently used for soiled infectious waste like dressings and body fluid-contaminated materials. *Black bag* - **Black bags** are used for **general non-hazardous waste** that poses no biological risk. - Disposing of sharps in black bags creates serious **risk of needlestick injuries** and potential transmission of bloodborne pathogens. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because there is a specific, regulated method for disposing of sharps in healthcare settings. - Proper waste segregation is **mandatory** for safety and regulatory compliance. *Blue bag* - **Blue bags** (per BMW Rules 2016) are used for disposal of **glassware** (broken or discarded) and **metallic body implants**. - Under older guidelines, blue bags were for certain pharmaceutical waste. - They are not designated for sharps disposal.
Question 66: Which category waste is disposed in red bags?
- A. Glassware and metallic implants (Category 2)
- B. Human anatomical waste (Category 1)
- C. Contaminated recyclable waste (Category 3) (Correct Answer)
- D. Pharmaceutical waste (Category 4)
Explanation: ***Contaminated recyclable waste (Category 3)*** - **Red bags** are specifically designated for the disposal of **contaminated recyclable waste**, which includes items like tubing, catheters, intravenous sets, and soiled plastic bottles. - This waste is often contaminated with blood or body fluids but can be sterilized and recycled after proper treatment. *Human anatomical waste (Category 1)* - **Human anatomical waste**, such as tissues, organs, body parts, and fetuses, is typically disposed of in **yellow bags**. - This category usually requires incineration or deep burial due to its biological hazard. *Glassware and metallic implants (Category 2)* - **Glassware** (e.g., broken glass, used vials) and **metallic implants** (e.g., orthopedic implants) are typically disposed of in puncture-proof containers, often **blue** or transparent bins, for safe handling and potential recycling. - These items are separated to prevent injuries and facilitate specific recycling or treatment methods. *Pharmaceutical waste (Category 4)* - **Pharmaceutical waste** includes discarded medicines, expired drugs, and cytotoxic drugs, and it is usually collected in **yellow bags** or designated labeled containers. - Its disposal requires specific chemical treatment, incineration, or secure landfilling to prevent environmental contamination.
Question 67: Which of the following is not typically incinerated?
- A. Animal waste
- B. Broken thermometers (Correct Answer)
- C. Infected solid waste
- D. Human anatomical waste
Explanation: ***Broken thermometers*** - **Broken thermometers** often contain **mercury**, which, when incinerated, releases **toxic mercury vapor** into the atmosphere. - This poses a severe environmental and health hazard, requiring them to be handled as **hazardous waste** and recycled or disposed of in specialized facilities to prevent mercury release. *Human anatomical waste* - **Human anatomical waste**, including body parts, tissues, and recognizable organs, is highly infectious and poses significant biohazard risks. - **Incineration** is the preferred method for its disposal to ensure complete destruction of pathogens and reduce environmental contamination. *Animal waste* - **Animal waste** from research or healthcare settings (e.g., infected animal carcasses, bedding with animal excreta) is considered **biohazardous**. - **Incineration** effectively neutralizes pathogens and reduces the volume of such waste, preventing disease transmission. *Infected solid waste* - **Infected solid waste**, such as bandages, swabs, and disposable medical devices contaminated with blood or bodily fluids, carries a high risk of spreading infectious diseases. - **Incineration** at high temperatures ensures sterilization and safe disposal of these materials, destroying pathogenic microorganisms.
Question 68: In immediate disaster response management (first 24-48 hours), which of the following is not typically practiced?
- A. Rehabilitation
- B. Triage
- C. Mass vaccination (Correct Answer)
- D. Search and rescue
Explanation: ***Mass vaccination*** - **Mass vaccination** is typically a strategy for **preparedness/prevention phase** or **post-disaster disease prevention**, not an immediate disaster response activity. - Immediate disaster response focuses on **saving lives, providing emergency medical care, establishing shelter, and restoring critical infrastructure**, rather than large-scale preventative health campaigns. - Mass vaccination requires **planning, logistics, cold chain management**, which are incompatible with chaotic immediate response scenarios. *Triage* - **Triage** is a **critical and immediate** component of disaster response, involving the **prioritization of injured patients** for treatment based on severity and survival likelihood. - It ensures limited resources are allocated effectively to **maximize lives saved** during the acute phase. - Typically uses **color-coded tags** (red-immediate, yellow-delayed, green-minor, black-deceased). *Rehabilitation* - While **rehabilitation** is part of the **recovery phase** (weeks to months post-disaster), **early rehabilitation activities** may begin during the immediate response period. - Basic rehabilitation services like **mobility aids, psychological first aid**, can be initiated alongside acute care. - This makes it partially practiced even in immediate response, unlike mass vaccination which is never immediate. *Search and rescue* - **Search and rescue** is the **primary immediate response activity**, focusing on locating and extracting survivors from disaster-affected areas. - Time-critical operation following the **"golden period"** principle where survival rates decrease rapidly after 72 hours. - Involves specialized teams with equipment for **debris removal, victim location, and emergency extraction**.
Question 69: Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?
- A. Training for 40 days
- B. Under ICDS scheme
- C. Mostly female
- D. Covers a population of 2000 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Covers a population of 2000*** - An **Anganwadi center** typically covers a population of **1000** in rural and urban areas, and **700** in tribal areas, not 2000. - This statement is incorrect because the specified population coverage is double the standard norm for an Anganwadi center. *Mostly female* - The vast majority of **Anganwadi workers** are **women** from the local community. - This is a correct statement, reflecting the gender composition of the Anganwadi workforce. *Training for 40 days* - **Anganwadi workers** undergo an initial **training program of 40 days**. - This statement is correct, outlining the standard duration of their foundational training. *Under ICDS scheme* - **Anganwadi centers** are a crucial part of the **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme**. - This statement is correct, as the ICDS scheme established and oversees Anganwadi centers to provide health, nutrition, and early childhood education services.
Question 70: According to the ICDS scheme, what is the recommended population range for establishing one Anganwadi centre in rural areas?
- A. 700-1000 (Urban)
- B. 1000-1500 (Urban high density)
- C. 300-800 (Hilly/Tribal areas)
- D. 400-800 (Rural) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***400-800 (Rural)*** - The **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)** scheme recommends one Anganwadi centre for a population of **400-800** in **rural areas**. - This is the **standard population norm** as per ICDS guidelines for establishing Anganwadi centres in typical rural settings. - This ensures adequate coverage and accessibility of ICDS services (nutrition, immunization, health check-ups, and preschool education) for mothers and children. *700-1000 (Urban)* - This population range (**700-1000**) is the standard norm for **urban areas**, not rural areas. - Urban areas have higher population density, hence a slightly larger population range is used per Anganwadi centre. - The question specifically asks about **rural areas**, making this option incorrect. *300-800 (Hilly/Tribal areas)* - This range (**300-800**) is designated for **hilly, difficult terrain, or specific tribal areas** where geographical challenges and scattered populations require lower population norms. - While this includes rural characteristics, it represents **special category areas**, not standard rural areas as asked in the question. *1000-1500 (Urban high density)* - A population target of **1000-1500** would be too high even for standard urban norms and doesn't align with official ICDS guidelines. - This is not applicable to **rural areas** as specified in the question.