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PharmacologyQ.1 / 3
1:30

A 58-year-old with type 2 DM presents with lactic acidosis. Which is the MOST appropriate management step?

A
Continue metformin at a lower dose
B
Add a DPP-4 inhibitor to current regimen
C
Switch to insulin monotherapy
D
Switch to a sulfonylurea
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Medicine
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3,200+
Surgery
12%
2,100+
Pharmacology
10%
1,800+
Pathology
10%
1,800+
OBG
9%
1,600+
Anatomy
8%
1,400+
Physiology
7%
1,200+
Microbiology
7%
1,200+
Paediatrics
7%
1,200+
PSM
6%
1,000+
% = weight on NEET-PG · Q = questions availableExplore NEET-PG questions
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Microbiology

Negri bodies in hippocampal neurons are pathognomonic of?

A
Herpes encephalitis
B
Rabies
C
Measles
D
CMV
02ANALYZE

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Microbiology

Negri bodies in hippocampal neurons are pathognomonic of?

A
Herpes encephalitis
B
Rabies
C
Measles
D
CMV
Explanation

Negri bodies (eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions) are pathognomonic of rabies, not herpes or CMV.

03IMPROVEMastered ✓

The concept is locked in. When we show it again, you nail it. We move on.

Microbiology

Negri bodies in hippocampal neurons are pathognomonic of?

A
Herpes encephalitis
B
Rabies
C
Measles
D
CMV

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Why is metformin contraindicated in lactic acidosis?
Rezzy
Metformin inhibits mitochondrial complex I, which impairs oxidative phosphorylation. When lactic acidosis is already present, this worsens lactate clearance and can be fatal.

Think of it as adding fuel to a fire — the liver can't convert lactate to glucose fast enough.
What should you switch to instead?
Rezzy
Sulfonylureas (e.g. glipizide) or insulin. Both bypass the mitochondrial pathway entirely — no lactic acid accumulation risk.
Ask Rezzy anything…
Quiz completePassed
72%18 / 25 correct
By subject
Pharmacology9/10
Pathology7/10
Anatomy2/5
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