NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics PYQs Practice Questions

Q: Blount's disease is associated with all of the following, except:

Genu recurvatum (hyperextension of the knee). ***Genu recurvatum (hyperextension of the knee)*** - Blount's disease is primarily characterized by **genu varum** (bowing of the legs) due to abnormal growth of the proximal tibia. - **Genu recurvatum** is not a typical feature or associated deformity of Blount's disease. *Genu varum (tibia vara)* - This is the **hallmark deformity** of Blount's disease, involving an inward bowing of the leg predominantly at the knee. - It results from a growth disturbance in the **medial portion of the proximal tibial physis**. *External tibial torsion (can occur in some cases)* - While less common than internal torsion, **external tibial torsion** can sometimes be a secondary or associated deformitry in complex cases of Blount's disease, especially with progressive bowing. - It involves an outward twisting of the tibia relative to the femur. *Internal tibial torsion (common in Blount's disease)* - **Internal tibial torsion** is a frequently observed deformity in patients with Blount's disease. - It results in an inward rotation of the lower leg, contributing to the overall malalignment alongside the genu varum. [Practice more Orthopaedics PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which ligament is most commonly damaged in knee injuries?

ACL. ***ACL*** - The **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)** is highly susceptible to injury, especially during sports involving sudden stops, changes in direction, jumping, and awkward landings. - Its role in stabilizing the knee against **anterior tibial translation** and rotational forces makes it vulnerable to tears. *PCL* - The **posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)** is much stronger than the ACL and less frequently injured, typically requiring a direct blow to the flexed knee (e.g., dashboard injury). - It prevents **posterior tibial translation** relative to the femur. *MCL* - The **medial collateral ligament (MCL)** is commonly injured, often due to a direct blow to the outside of the knee causing a **valgus stress**. - While frequently damaged, it is often injured in conjunction with the ACL but the ACL is more frequently injured in isolation. *LCL* - The **lateral collateral ligament (LCL)** is the least commonly injured of the four major knee ligaments. - It usually results from a direct blow to the inside of the knee causing **varus stress**. [Practice more Orthopaedics PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Radiological sign in case of Perthes disease?

Flattening of femoral head. ***Flattening of femoral head*** - **Flattening** and **fragmentation** of the femoral head are characteristic radiological findings in **early-stage** Perthes disease. - This flattening is a direct consequence of the **avascular necrosis** and subsequent **remodeling** of the femoral epiphysis. *Fragmentation of femoral head epiphysis* - While **fragmentation** is a key feature of Perthes disease, it's typically observed **after** the initial flattening and sclerosis in the avascular stage. - It represents the process of **resorption** and **revascularization** as the bone attempts to heal. *Lateral femoral head displacement* - **Lateral displacement** of the femoral head is a more common finding in conditions like **slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)**, where the epiphysis slips from the metaphysis. - In Perthes disease, the primary issue is the **necrosis and collapse** of the femoral head itself, rather than displacement from the neck. *Limited hip abduction* - **Limited hip abduction** is a clinical sign, not a radiological sign, and it is a common symptom in Perthes disease due to pain, inflammation, and deformity of the femoral head. - Radiological signs are visual abnormalities observed on imaging studies like X-rays. [Practice more Orthopaedics PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What is the characteristic feature of neuropraxia?

No structural damage to the nerve. ***No structural damage to the nerve*** - **Neuropraxia** is the mildest form of nerve injury, characterized by a **temporary block in nerve conduction** without structural damage to the axon or surrounding connective tissues. - This typically results in **temporary sensory and/or motor deficits** that fully resolve within weeks to months. *Damage to the endoneurium* - Damage to the **endoneurium** would indicate a more severe injury, such as **axonotmesis**, where the axon is damaged but the connective tissue sheaths are preserved. - This level of injury suggests that wallerian degeneration would occur distal to the lesion, leading to **slower and incomplete recovery**. *Damage to the epineurium* - Damage to the **epineurium**, along with the endoneurium and perineurium, signifies **neurotmesis**, the most severe nerve injury. - This involves a **complete transection of the nerve**, requiring surgical intervention for any chance of functional recovery. *Damage to the axon* - Damage to the **axon** itself, often alongside preserved connective tissues, is characteristic of **axonotmesis**. - While recovery is possible through axonal regeneration, it is **slower and less complete** than in neuropraxia. [Practice more Orthopaedics PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: The main muscle affected in congenital muscular torticollis is?

Sternocleidomastoid. ***Sternocleidomastoid*** - Congenital muscular torticollis (CMT) is primarily caused by **unilateral fibrosis and shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM)**. - This leads to the characteristic **head tilt towards the affected side** and **chin rotation to the opposite side**. *Trapezius* - The trapezius muscle is primarily involved in **shrugging the shoulders**, extending and rotating the head and neck, but is not the main muscle affected in CMT. - While it can become secondarily tight in response to persistent head positioning, it is **not the primary pathological muscle** in CMT. *Scalenus Anticus* - The scalenus anticus (anterior scalene muscle) is involved in **neck flexion and elevation of the first rib** during forced inspiration. - It plays a role in various neck pain syndromes and brachial plexus compression, but it is **not the defining muscle in congenital muscular torticollis**. *Omohyoid* - The omohyoid is a **strap muscle of the neck** that depresses the hyoid bone. - It has no primary involvement in the **pathophysiology or clinical presentation of congenital muscular torticollis**. [Practice more Orthopaedics PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

Blount's disease is associated with all of the following, except:

Accepted Answer

Genu recurvatum (hyperextension of the knee)

Answer

External tibial torsion (can occur in some cases)

Answer

Genu varum (tibia vara)

Answer

Internal tibial torsion (common in Blount's disease)

Question 2

Which ligament is most commonly damaged in knee injuries?

Accepted Answer

ACL

Answer

PCL

Answer

LCL

Answer

MCL

Question 3

Radiological sign in case of Perthes disease?

Accepted Answer

Flattening of femoral head

Answer

Fragmentation of femoral head epiphysis

Answer

Lateral femoral head displacement

Answer

Limited hip abduction

Question 4

What is the characteristic feature of neuropraxia?

Accepted Answer

No structural damage to the nerve

Answer

Damage to the endoneurium

Answer

Damage to the epineurium

Answer

Damage to the axon

Question 5

The main muscle affected in congenital muscular torticollis is?

Accepted Answer

Sternocleidomastoid

Answer

Trapezius

Answer

Scalenus Anticus

Answer

Omohyoid

Question 6

The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -

Accepted Answer

Intertrochanteric fractures

Answer

Isthmic femur shaft fractures

Answer

Low subtrochanteric fractures

Answer

Distal femur shaft fractures

Question 7

Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -

Accepted Answer

Jersey Finger

Answer

Extensor tendon injury

Answer

Ulnar collateral ligament injury

Answer

Central slip injury

Question 8

The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?

Accepted Answer

Metacarpophalangeal joint

Answer

Proximal Interphalngeal joint

Answer

Carpometacarpal joint

Answer

Distal Interphalangeal joint

Question 9

A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?

Accepted Answer

Thomas test

Answer

Trendelenburgs test

Answer

Telescoping test

Answer

Nelaton's test

Question 10

Thomas test is used for testing?

Accepted Answer

Hip flexor tightness

Answer

Knee flexion

Answer

Hip abduction

Answer

Hip rotation

NEET-PG 2015 — Orthopaedics