Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: Which of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?
- A. Subcutaneous fat necrosis
- B. Hyperlipidemia
- C. Hypercalcemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Increased amylase level
Explanation: ***Hypercalcemia*** - Acute pancreatitis is primarily associated with **increased amylase levels** and **hyperlipidemia**, while hypercalcemia is generally a separate condition. - It is not a classical complication or result of acute pancreatitis, but rather might be a cause in cases like **hyperparathyroidism** [1]. *Subcutaneous fat necrosis* - This occurs as a result of **lipolysis** during acute pancreatitis due to the release of **lipases** into circulation [1]. - It is characterized by the presence of **fat necrosis** on the abdomen or buttocks. *Increased amylase level* - A hallmark of acute pancreatitis is **elevated levels of amylase** and sometimes lipase, indicating pancreatic inflammation [1]. - The rise typically occurs within the first 24 hours of the onset of pancreatitis. *Hyperlipidemia* - This is often found in acute pancreatitis due to excess **lipolysis**, leading to elevated triglycerides in the blood [1]. - It can be both a cause and a consequence of pancreatic inflammation, contributing to the disease process [1].
Pediatrics
1 questionsAll of the following are clinical features suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: All of the following are clinical features suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula except -
- A. Fever (Correct Answer)
- B. Choking and Coughing
- C. Regurgitation
- D. Cyanosis
Explanation: ***Fever*** - **Fever is NOT a primary clinical feature** of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) itself. - While fever might occur as a **complication** if aspiration pneumonia develops, it is not a direct presenting sign of TEF. - The classic presentation of TEF occurs in **newborns within hours of birth** and involves the "3 Cs" - not fever. *Choking and Coughing* - Part of the classic **"3 Cs" triad** (Choking, Coughing, Cyanosis) of TEF presentation. - Occurs during the **first feeding attempt** when milk enters the trachea through the abnormal fistulous connection. - This is a **cardinal diagnostic feature** that should immediately raise suspicion for TEF. *Regurgitation* - **Immediate regurgitation** of feeds is characteristic, especially in TEF with esophageal atresia (most common type - Type C). - The **blind-ending proximal esophageal pouch** prevents normal passage of saliva and feeds, causing regurgitation. - Often accompanied by **excessive drooling and frothy secretions** from the mouth and nose. *Cyanosis* - The third component of the **"3 Cs" triad** and a key clinical feature. - Results from **aspiration of feeds or saliva** into the trachea and lungs, causing acute respiratory distress. - May also occur from **laryngospasm** as a protective reflex when fluid enters the airway.
Radiology
1 questionsRigler's sign is suggestive of?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: Rigler's sign is suggestive of?
- A. Pneumothorax
- B. Pneumoperitoneum (Correct Answer)
- C. Peritonitis
- D. Hemothorax
Explanation: ***Correct: Pneumoperitoneum*** - **Rigler's sign** (double wall sign) is the visualization of both the **inner (mucosal) and outer (serosal) surfaces** of the bowel wall on an abdominal X-ray. - This occurs when **free intraperitoneal air** outlines both sides of the bowel wall, making it a **pathognomonic sign of pneumoperitoneum**. - Commonly seen in **bowel perforation** from causes like peptic ulcer, trauma, or iatrogenic injury. *Incorrect: Pneumothorax* - Refers to air in the **pleural space** (thoracic cavity), not the peritoneal cavity. - Diagnosed on chest X-ray by the **visceral pleural line** with absent lung markings peripherally. - Completely different anatomical compartment from where Rigler's sign is observed. *Incorrect: Peritonitis* - Represents **inflammation of the peritoneum**, which is a clinical and pathological diagnosis. - While pneumoperitoneum from perforation can **lead to peritonitis**, Rigler's sign specifically indicates the **presence of free air**, not inflammation itself. - Peritonitis has no specific pathognomonic radiological sign like Rigler's. *Incorrect: Hemothorax* - Refers to **blood in the pleural cavity** (thoracic, not abdominal). - Appears as a **pleural effusion** with meniscus sign on chest X-ray. - Unrelated to abdominal radiological findings or free air.
Surgery
7 questionsA 55 year old woman presented with history of recurrent episodes of right upper abdominal pain for the last one year. She presented to emergency with history of jaundice and fever for 2 days. On examination, the patient appeared toxic and had a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. She was started on intravenous antibiotics. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of stones in the common bile duct. What would be the best treatment option for her -
A 70 year old male complaining of per rectal bleeding was diagnosed with rectal/anorectal cancer. The distal margin of the tumor was 5 cm from the anal verge. The treatment of choice would be -
Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung disease is incorrect?
Among pathological lead points, the commonest cause of intussusception is -
What is the most important presenting feature of periampullary carcinoma?
What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?
All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: A 55 year old woman presented with history of recurrent episodes of right upper abdominal pain for the last one year. She presented to emergency with history of jaundice and fever for 2 days. On examination, the patient appeared toxic and had a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. She was started on intravenous antibiotics. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of stones in the common bile duct. What would be the best treatment option for her -
- A. Open bile duct surgery for stone removal
- B. Lithotripsy for bile duct stones
- C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal)
- D. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and bile duct stone extraction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and bile duct stone extraction*** - The patient presents with **Reynolds' pentad** (Charcot's triad - right upper abdominal pain, jaundice, fever - plus hypotension and toxic appearance/altered mental status), indicating severe acute **cholangitis with septic shock** due to common bile duct stones. - **ERCP with stone extraction** is the most appropriate initial treatment in this unstable patient to achieve rapid biliary decompression and remove the obstruction, which is life-saving in septic cholangitis. - This minimally invasive approach provides urgent drainage while minimizing surgical stress in a critically ill patient. *Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal)* - While cholecystectomy addresses gallbladder stones, it does not directly remove **common bile duct stones** causing the current acute cholangitis. - Performing cholecystectomy alone in an acutely septic patient would not resolve the immediate life-threatening biliary obstruction. - Cholecystectomy can be considered later (interval cholecystectomy) after stabilization and ERCP. *Open bile duct surgery for stone removal* - This is a more invasive procedure with higher morbidity and mortality compared to ERCP for initial management of common bile duct stones, especially in an acutely ill, hemodynamically unstable patient. - **Open surgery** is typically reserved for cases where ERCP fails or is not feasible, or for complex cases requiring biliary reconstruction. *Lithotripsy for bile duct stones* - **Lithotripsy** (fragmenting stones) is not appropriate for initial management of acute cholangitis with sepsis, as it does not provide immediate biliary drainage. - It might be considered as an adjunct for very large or impacted stones during ERCP, but it's not the primary immediate treatment in this emergency setting.
Question 982: A 70 year old male complaining of per rectal bleeding was diagnosed with rectal/anorectal cancer. The distal margin of the tumor was 5 cm from the anal verge. The treatment of choice would be -
- A. Palliative Radiotherapy
- B. Low anterior resection (Correct Answer)
- C. Local Excision
- D. Abdominoperineal resection
Explanation: ***Low anterior resection*** - A tumor located 5 cm from the anal verge is considered a **low rectal tumor**, which is typically amenable to a **low anterior resection** with sphincter preservation. - This procedure aims for complete tumor removal while preserving anal function, which is often achievable when the distal margin allows for a safe distal resection margin (usually 1-2 cm). *Palliative Radiotherapy* - This is typically reserved for patients with advanced, **unresectable disease** or those who are not candidates for surgery due to comorbidities, aiming to alleviate symptoms rather than cure. - The scenario describes a potentially resectable tumor, making curative surgery the preferred initial approach. *Abdominoperineal resection* - This procedure involves the removal of the rectum, anus, and creation of a permanent colostomy, typically reserved for very **low rectal tumors** that are extremely close to or involve the anal sphincter, and cannot safely achieve a negative distal margin with sphincter preservation. - A tumor 5 cm from the anal verge usually allows for a sphincter-sparing procedure like low anterior resection. *Local Excision* - **Local excision (transanal excision)** is suitable for very superficial, small, well-differentiated tumors without lymph node involvement, typically T1N0M0 tumors. - The question does not provide details on tumor depth or nodal status, but a 5 cm tumor usually indicates a need for a more comprehensive resection to ensure oncological clearance.
Question 983: Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung disease is incorrect?
- A. The non-peristaltic affected segment is dilated (Correct Answer)
- B. Absence of ganglion cells in the involved segment
- C. Mainly presents in infancy
- D. Swenson, Duhamel, and Soave are surgical procedures for this condition
Explanation: ***The non-peristaltic affected segment is dilated*** - In Hirschsprung disease, the **aganglionic segment** is typically **constricted** and **narrow**, not dilated, due to continuous contraction without relaxation. - The healthy colon proximal to the affected segment becomes dilated due to the obstruction caused by the constricted, aganglionic segment. *Absence of Ganglion cells in the involved segment* - This statement is **correct**. Hirschsprung disease is fundamentally characterized by the **absence of intramural ganglion cells** (Meissner and Auerbach plexuses) in a segment of the distal colon. - This aganglionosis results in a failure of relaxation and normal peristalsis in the affected bowel segment. *Swenson, Duhamel, and Soave are surgical procedures for this condition* - This statement is **correct**. These are the classic and most common **pull-through surgical procedures** used to treat Hirschsprung disease. - They involve resecting the aganglionic segment and pulling the normal, ganglionated bowel down to the anus. *Mainly presents in infancy* - This statement is **correct**. Hirschsprung disease is primarily a **congenital condition** and is typically diagnosed in newborns and infants. - Common presenting symptoms include **failure to pass meconium** within the first 24-48 hours of life, abdominal distension, and bilious vomiting.
Question 984: Among pathological lead points, the commonest cause of intussusception is -
- A. Submucous lipoma
- B. Meckel's diverticulum (Correct Answer)
- C. Polyp
- D. Hypertrophy of submucous peyer's patches
Explanation: ***Meckel's diverticulum*** - Among **pathological lead points** specifically, **Meckel's diverticulum** is the most common cause of intussusception. - It is a true congenital diverticulum that can act as a lead point when it becomes inverted, inflamed, or has associated ectopic tissue or tumors. - While overall intussusception in children is mostly idiopathic, when a **pathological lesion** is identified, Meckel's diverticulum is the leading cause. - Seen in approximately 2% of the population, it follows the "rule of 2s" and is the most frequent anatomical abnormality causing pathological intussusception in pediatric patients. *Hypertrophy of submucous Peyer's patches* - **Peyer's patch hypertrophy** is the most common cause of intussusception **overall** in children (90% of cases), typically following viral infections. - However, this represents **idiopathic intussusception**, not a true pathological lead point, as no discrete anatomical lesion is identified. - The question specifically asks for pathological lead points, which excludes this idiopathic mechanism. *Submucous lipoma* - A **submucous lipoma** can serve as a pathological lead point for intussusception, but is much rarer. - More commonly seen in adults rather than children. - While it is a true pathological lesion, it is less frequent than Meckel's diverticulum as a lead point. *Polyp* - **Polyps** (adenomatous, hamartomatous, or inflammatory) can act as pathological lead points. - More common in adults and in specific syndromes (e.g., Peutz-Jeghers syndrome). - Less frequent than Meckel's diverticulum among pathological causes in the pediatric population.
Question 985: What is the most important presenting feature of periampullary carcinoma?
- A. Jaundice (Correct Answer)
- B. Abdominal Pain
- C. Unintentional Weight Loss
- D. Palpable Abdominal Mass
Explanation: ***Jaundice*** - **Painless obstructive jaundice** is the hallmark symptom, occurring early due to the tumor's proximity to the common bile duct. - The obstruction of bile flow leads to the accumulation of **bilirubin**, causing yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes. *Abdominal Pain* - While **abdominal pain** can occur, it is often a later symptom and is less specific than jaundice for early diagnosis. - Pain typically arises from tumor growth, invasion of surrounding structures, or pancreatic involvement. *Unintentional Weight Loss* - **Unintentional weight loss** is a common constitutional symptom of many advanced malignancies, including periampullary carcinoma. - However, it usually manifests at a later stage and is not the initial, specific presenting feature that prompts investigation. *Palpable Abdominal Mass* - A **palpable abdominal mass** is rare in early periampullary carcinoma, as these tumors are typically small and deeply seated. - Its presence usually indicates advanced disease with significant tumor burden or metastasis.
Question 986: What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?
- A. CA 19-9
- B. CA-125
- C. Alpha fetoprotein
- D. CEA (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CEA*** - Carcinoembryonic antigen (**CEA**) is a well-established tumor marker for monitoring colorectal cancer post-surgery and assessing prognosis [1]. - Elevated **CEA levels** after surgery may indicate recurrence or residual disease, making it valuable in follow-up care [1]. *CA 19-9* - Primarily associated with **pancreatic** and **biliary tract cancers**, and not specific for colon carcinoma. - While it may elevate in some gastrointestinal malignancies, it is not the best indicator for prognosis after colon cancer surgery. *Alpha fetoprotein* - Mostly used for monitoring **hepatocellular carcinoma** and germ cell tumors, not colorectal malignancies. - Elevated levels are not typically correlated with prognosis in colon cancer patients. *CA-125* - Mainly utilized as a tumor marker for **ovarian cancer** and some other malignancies, not specifically for colon carcinoma. - Its use in colorectal cancer prognosis is limited and lacks relevance in this context. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 253-254.
Question 987: All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -
- A. Ivor Lewis Approach
- B. McKeown's Approach
- C. Transhiatal removal
- D. Sistrunk operation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sistrunk operation*** - The **Sistrunk operation** is a surgical procedure specifically designed for the removal of a **thyroglossal duct cyst**, not for esophageal carcinoma. - This procedure involves excising the cyst along with the central portion of the hyoid bone and the tract leading to the foramen cecum to prevent recurrence. *Ivor Lewis Approach* - The **Ivor Lewis approach** is a common and established surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, involving both abdominal and right thoracic incisions for tumor resection and reconstruction. - It is often used for tumors in the mid to distal esophagus. *Mckeown's Approach* - The **McKeown's approach** is another well-known surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, typically used for more proximal esophageal tumors. - This involves three incisions: abdominal, right thoracic, and cervical, allowing for extensive lymphadenectomy. *Transhiatal removal* - **Transhiatal esophagectomy** is a surgical option for esophageal cancer that involves abdominal and cervical incisions without a thoracic incision. - This approach is often favored in patients with significant comorbidities who may not tolerate a full thoracotomy.