NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Where is the auditory cortex primarily located in the brain?

Superior temporal gyrus. ***Superior temporal gyrus*** - The **primary auditory cortex** (Brodmann areas 41 and 42) is located in the **superior temporal gyrus**, primarily within the **transverse temporal gyri of Heschl**. [1] - This region is responsible for processing **auditory information**, including pitch, loudness, and sound localization. [1] *Inferior temporal gyrus* - The **inferior temporal gyrus** is a part of the temporal lobe involved in higher-level **visual processing** and object recognition. - It plays a role in the "what" pathway of vision and **memory formation**, not primary auditory processing. *Area 3,1,2* - **Brodmann areas 3, 1, and 2** collectively form the **primary somatosensory cortex**. [2] - This area is located in the **postcentral gyrus** of the parietal lobe and is responsible for processing touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception. [2] *Cingulate gyrus* - The **cingulate gyrus** is a component of the **limbic system**, involved in emotion formation, learning, memory, and executive function. - It plays a role in processing emotional aspects of pain and fear, but not primary auditory perception.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding polio vaccination is false?

First OPV is given at 4 weeks. ***First OPV is given at 4 weeks*** - The first dose of **Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)** is typically given at birth, often referred to as the **"zero dose,"** before the 4-week mark. - Subsequent doses are given at 6, 10, and 14 weeks of age as part of the routine immunization schedule, making the statement that the first OPV is given at 4 weeks false. *OPV induces both humoral and intestinal immunity* - **OPV** is a **live attenuated vaccine** that replicates in the gut, thereby stimulating both a systemic **humoral immune response** (producing antibodies in the bloodstream) and **local intestinal immunity** (IgA antibodies in the gut). - This **intestinal immunity** is crucial for preventing viral replication in the gut and reducing transmission. *IPV is given intramuscularly* - The **Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)**, also known as the **Salk vaccine**, is administered via injection, specifically through the **intramuscular route**. - This method ensures systemic absorption and the development of **humoral immunity**. *Both killed and live vaccines are available* - There are two main types of polio vaccines: **Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)**, which is a **live attenuated vaccine**, and **Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)**, which is a **killed vaccine**. - Both types have been instrumental in polio eradication efforts, each with distinct advantages and disadvantages.

Q: Behavioral surveillance survey is done in?

AIDS. ***AIDS*** - Behavioral surveillance surveys are crucial for understanding and monitoring behaviors related to **HIV transmission**, such as sexual practices and drug use, among at-risk populations. - These surveys help in designing and evaluating **prevention programs** by identifying trends in risky behaviors and knowledge, attitudes, and practices (KAP) concerning HIV. *Filaria* - Surveillance for filaria primarily involves **entomological surveys** (mosquito monitoring) and **parasitological surveys** (blood examinations for microfilariae). - Behavioral aspects are less central to direct surveillance compared to disease vectors and infection rates. *TB* - Tuberculosis surveillance mainly focuses on **case detection**, **treatment outcomes**, and monitoring **drug resistance** through clinical and laboratory data. - While patient adherence to treatment involves behavior, there isn't a dedicated "behavioral surveillance survey" method specifically for TB. *Malaria* - Malaria surveillance involves monitoring **parasitemia rates**, **vector populations**, and **antimalarial drug resistance**. - Behavioral components like bed net usage are important, but the primary surveillance methods are not termed "behavioral surveillance surveys" in the same structured way as for HIV.

Q: Which of the following vaccines is not freeze-dried?

Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine. ***Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine*** - The DPT vaccine is a **liquid vaccine** that contains inactivated toxins and bacterial components, making it stable in liquid form. - It does not require **freeze-drying** because its components are chemically stable and do not degrade significantly in solution. *Measles Vaccine* - The measles vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine** that needs to be freeze-dried to maintain the viability and stability of the live virus. - Freeze-drying helps preserve the vaccine's potency by removing water, which prevents degradation during storage and transport. *Rubella Vaccine* - Similar to the measles vaccine, the rubella vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine** and is therefore provided in a freeze-dried form. - This process ensures the long-term stability and efficacy of the viral components, which would otherwise degrade in a liquid state. *BCG Vaccine* - The BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is a **live attenuated bacterial vaccine** used against tuberculosis, and it is also manufactured as a freeze-dried product. - Freeze-drying is essential for maintaining the viability of the live attenuated *Mycobacterium bovis* strain.

Q: Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?

DEC. ***Correct: DEC*** - **Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)** is the drug of choice for **mass drug administration (MDA)** campaigns aimed at eliminating lymphatic filariasis. - It effectively kills **microfilariae** and has some action on adult worms, reducing transmission. - In India's National Filariasis Elimination Programme, DEC is administered along with Albendazole in annual MDA campaigns. *Incorrect: Albendazole* - While **Albendazole** is co-administered with DEC in MDA programs, it is not the sole drug of choice for mass treatment of filariasis. - Its primary role is to provide **macrofilaricidal** activity (killing adult worms) and co-treatment for other helminth infections. - It enhances the effect of DEC but is not used alone. *Incorrect: Ivermectin* - **Ivermectin** is used in MDA programs for filariasis, particularly in areas co-endemic with **onchocerciasis** or where **Loa loa** is prevalent (as DEC is contraindicated in these areas). - However, in India and most lymphatic filariasis endemic areas, **DEC** remains the primary drug. *Incorrect: Mebendazole* - **Mebendazole** is an anthelminthic primarily used for treating **intestinal nematode infections** like ascariasis, trichuriasis, and hookworm. - It is **not used** in lymphatic filariasis mass treatment programs.

Q: Reservoir of infection in enteric fever?

Man. ***Man*** - Humans are the **sole natural reservoir** for *Salmonella Typhi* and *Salmonella Paratyphi*, the causative agents of enteric fever (typhoid and paratyphoid fever). - The bacteria can persist in the **gallbladder** of asymptomatic carriers, who can then shed the bacteria in their feces, contributing to transmission. *Birds* - Birds are not considered a primary reservoir for the **causative pathogens of enteric fever** (*Salmonella Typhi* or *Paratyphi*). - They are more commonly associated with other *Salmonella* serotypes, such as *Salmonella Enteritidis*, which cause **gastroenteritis** rather than systemic enteric fever. *Cow* - Cows are not a primary reservoir for the organisms responsible for **enteric fever**; these pathogens are specifically adapted to humans. - While cows can carry various *Salmonella* species, they are typically associated with **foodborne outbreaks** of *Salmonella*-induced **gastroenteritis**, not typhoid fever. *Water* - Water is a **vehicle for transmission** of enteric fever, becoming contaminated with human feces containing *Salmonella Typhi* or *Paratyphi*. - It is not a reservoir because the bacteria do not naturally **multiply or persist indefinitely** in water without a human source.

Q: Which of the following tests is not classified as an in vivo test?

Elek's gel precipitation test. ***Elek's gel precipitation test*** - This test is an **in vitro** method used to detect the production of **diphtheria toxin** by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* strains in a lab setting, not within a living organism. - It involves the precipitation of toxin and antitoxin in an agar gel, forming visible lines. *Schick test* - The Schick test is an **in vivo** test used to determine susceptibility to **diphtheria** by injecting diphtheria toxin subcutaneously and observing for a localized inflammatory reaction. - A positive reaction (inflammation) indicates a lack of protective antitoxin antibodies. *Lepromin test* - The Lepromin test is an **in vivo** test used to assess the type of **leprosy** a patient has and to evaluate their cell-mediated immune response to *Mycobacterium leprae*. - It involves the intradermal injection of lepromin antigen and observing for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. *Tuberculin test* - Also known as the **Mantoux test**, this is an **in vivo** test used to screen for exposure to **tuberculosis** by injecting purified protein derivative (PPD) intradermally. - A positive reaction indicates a **cell-mediated immune response** to *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*.

Q: Bartonella quintana causes:

Trench fever. ***Trench fever*** - **Bartonella quintana** is the causative agent of **trench fever**, a louse-borne disease historically common during wartime. - Symptoms include **recurrent fevers**, headache, bone pain (especially in the shins), and rash. *Scrub typhus* - Scrub typhus is caused by **Orientia tsutsugamushi**, a rickettsial bacterium, not Bartonella. - It is transmitted by **chiggers** and characterized by a rash, fever, and eschar at the bite site. *Epidemic typhus* - Epidemic typhus is caused by **Rickettsia prowazekii** and is also louse-borne. - It presents with sudden high fever, severe headache, and a maculopapular rash that spares the face, palms, and soles. *Endemic typhus* - Endemic typhus (murine typhus) is caused by **Rickettsia typhi** and is transmitted by **rat fleas**. - Its symptoms are generally milder than epidemic typhus, including fever, headache, and a truncal rash.

Q: What type of immunity is primarily associated with the administration of transfer factor?

Adoptive immunity. ***Adoptive immunity (Correct)*** - **Transfer factor** consists of small, dialyzable molecules extracted from immune T lymphocytes of an immune donor - Its administration transfers **cell-mediated immunity** from donor to recipient, which defines adoptive immunity - This represents transfer of **immune cells or their products** (not antibodies), providing antigen-specific cellular immunity - Also called **adoptive immunotherapy** or adoptive transfer *Artificial passive immunity (Incorrect)* - Involves the **transfer of pre-formed antibodies** (e.g., antitoxins, immunoglobulins, antiserum) from an immune individual or animal - Provides **immediate but temporary humoral protection** - Does NOT transfer cellular immunity - this is the key distinction from adoptive immunity - Examples: Anti-rabies immunoglobulin, anti-tetanus serum *Natural active immunity (Incorrect)* - Occurs when an individual is **naturally exposed to an antigen** (infection) and produces their own antibodies and immune cells - The host's own immune system **actively responds** to develop long-lasting immunity - Example: Immunity after recovering from measles or chickenpox *Artificial active immunity (Incorrect)* - Achieved through **vaccination** with attenuated, inactivated, or subunit antigens - The recipient's body is **actively stimulated** to produce protective immunity - Provides long-lasting protection through immunological memory

Q: Salmonella and Shigella can be differentiated from other Enterobacteriaceae members by isolation on:

XLD agar. ***XLD agar*** - **Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) agar** is a selective and differential medium used to isolate and identify *Salmonella* and *Shigella* species from other Enterobacteriaceae. - It differentiates *Salmonella* and *Shigella* based on their ability to ferment **xylose**, decarboxylate **lysine**, and produce **hydrogen sulfide (H2S)**. *MacConkey agar* - **MacConkey agar** is a selective and differential medium used to isolate Gram-negative bacteria and differentiate them based on **lactose fermentation**. - While it can grow *Salmonella* and *Shigella* (which are non-lactose fermenters), it does not specifically differentiate them from other non-lactose fermenting Enterobacteriaceae. *Mannitol salt agar* - **Mannitol salt agar (MSA)** is a selective and differential medium primarily used for the isolation of **staphylococci**. - It is highly selective due to its high salt concentration and differentiates staphylococci based on their ability to ferment **mannitol**. *BCYE medium* - **Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) medium** is a specialized enrichment medium used for the isolation of **Legionella species**. - It provides specific nutrients required for the growth of *Legionella* and is not suitable for differentiating *Salmonella* and *Shigella* from other Enterobacteriaceae.

Question 1

Where is the auditory cortex primarily located in the brain?

Accepted Answer

Superior temporal gyrus

Answer

Inferior temporal gyrus

Answer

Area 3,1,2

Answer

Cingulate gyrus

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding polio vaccination is false?

Accepted Answer

First OPV is given at 4 weeks

Answer

OPV induces both humoral and intestinal immunity

Answer

IPV is given intramuscularly

Answer

Both killed and live vaccines are available

Question 3

Behavioral surveillance survey is done in?

Accepted Answer

AIDS

Answer

TB

Answer

Filaria

Answer

Malaria

Question 4

Which of the following vaccines is not freeze-dried?

Accepted Answer

Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine

Answer

Measles Vaccine

Answer

Rubella Vaccine

Answer

BCG Vaccine

Question 5

Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?

Accepted Answer

DEC

Answer

Albendazole

Answer

Ivermectin

Answer

Mebendazole

Question 6

Reservoir of infection in enteric fever?

Accepted Answer

Man

Answer

Birds

Answer

Cow

Answer

Water

Question 7

Which of the following tests is not classified as an in vivo test?

Accepted Answer

Elek's gel precipitation test

Answer

Schick test

Answer

Tuberculin test

Answer

Lepromin test

Question 8

Bartonella quintana causes:

Accepted Answer

Trench fever

Answer

Scrub typhus

Answer

Epidemic typhus

Answer

Endemic typhus

Question 9

What type of immunity is primarily associated with the administration of transfer factor?

Accepted Answer

Adoptive immunity

Answer

Natural active immunity

Answer

Artificial active immunity

Answer

Artificial passive immunity

Question 10

Salmonella and Shigella can be differentiated from other Enterobacteriaceae members by isolation on:

Accepted Answer

XLD agar

Answer

MacConkey agar

Answer

Mannitol salt agar

Answer

BCYE medium

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Microbiology