NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not true about the Vi polysaccharide vaccine for typhoid?

Given at birth. ***Given at birth*** - The **typhoid Vi polysaccharide vaccine is not administered at birth**. It is recommended for individuals **2 years of age**. - Vaccines given at birth protect against diseases with significant **neonatal risk**, such as Hepatitis B and BCG (tuberculosis). - This is the **FALSE** statement, making it the correct answer to this "not true" question. *Single dose is given* - The Vi polysaccharide vaccine is administered as a **single 0.5 mL dose**. - This single dose provides protection against *Salmonella typhi* for approximately 3 years. - This statement is **TRUE**. *Revaccination at 3 years* - For ongoing protection, **revaccination is recommended every 3 years** for individuals at continued risk of typhoid exposure. - The booster dose maintains adequate protective antibody levels. - This statement is **TRUE**. *Given intramuscularly* - The Vi polysaccharide vaccine is administered via the **intramuscular (IM) route**, typically in the deltoid muscle. - This is the standard recommended route of administration. - This statement is **TRUE**.

Q: Human, animal, fomite or objects from which infective organism enters the host is called?

Source of infection. ***Source of infection*** - The **source of infection** refers to the person, animal, object, or substance from which an infectious agent passes immediately to a host. - This can include humans, animals, fomites, or contaminated objects that directly transmit the infectious organism. - This is the proximate source from which the agent enters the host. *Infective Reservoir* - An **infective reservoir** is the long-term habitat where an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies. - The reservoir can be human, animal, plant, soil, or inanimate matter where the agent is normally found. - While a reservoir can be a source, the source is specifically the immediate point from which transmission occurs. *Infective Carrier* - An **infective carrier** is an infected person or animal that harbors a specific infectious agent without showing clinical symptoms but can transmit it to others. - A carrier is a type of source (when transmission occurs from them), but the term "source" is broader, encompassing inanimate objects and fomites as well. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **Source of infection** accurately describes the concept presented in the question.

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of Bradford Hill's criteria for causation?

Absence of temporal relationship. ***Absence of temporal relationship*** - Bradford Hill's criteria include **temporality** (temporal relationship), which states that the cause must precede the effect in time. - The criterion is the **presence** of a temporal relationship, not its absence. - "Absence of temporal relationship" is therefore NOT one of Bradford Hill's criteria—it is the opposite of what the criterion requires. - This is the correct answer to this "NOT" question. *Strength of association* - This **IS** one of Bradford Hill's criteria. - It refers to the **magnitude of the association** between exposure and outcome (measured by relative risk, odds ratio, etc.). - A stronger association provides more evidence for causality. *Consistency of association* - This **IS** one of Bradford Hill's criteria. - It means the association is observed **repeatedly** across different studies, populations, settings, and times. - Consistent replication strengthens the causal argument. *Specificity of association* - This **IS** one of Bradford Hill's criteria. - It suggests that a specific exposure leads to a specific outcome with limited alternative explanations. - While supportive of causation, Hill noted this criterion is less essential as many exposures have multiple effects.

Q: What is the most important criterion in a causal relationship hypothesis?

Temporal association. ***Temporal association*** - This is the **sine qua non** of causality, meaning the exposure or cause must always precede the outcome or effect in time. - Without the exposure occurring before the disease, a causal link cannot be established, even if other criteria are met. *Coherence of association* - This refers to the consistency of findings with current scientific knowledge and **biological plausibility**. - While important for supporting causality, a coherent explanation is not sufficient in itself to prove causation and may even be misleading if current knowledge is incomplete. *Specificity of association* - This criterion suggests that a single exposure should lead to a single outcome, or a single outcome should be caused by a single exposure. - However, many diseases have **multiple causes**, and many exposures can lead to multiple effects, making this a weak criterion in modern epidemiology. *Strength of association* - A **strong association**, often measured by a high relative risk or odds ratio, makes a causal relationship more likely but does not guarantee it. - Strong associations can still be due to **confounding factors** or bias, and weak associations can be causal.

Q: What is the primary benefit of screening for diseases?

Early detection of diseases. ***Early detection of diseases*** - This is the **primary benefit** and defining purpose of **screening programs** in public health. - Screening identifies diseases in their **presymptomatic or early stage** when individuals are apparently healthy, allowing for intervention before clinical symptoms appear. - According to epidemiological principles, the goal of screening is to detect disease **earlier than it would be found through routine clinical practice**. - Early detection enables better prognosis through **lead time** and **length time bias** advantages. *Timely treatment of identified conditions* - While treatment is the **ultimate goal** of healthcare, it is not specific to screening—treatment occurs whether disease is found through screening or clinical presentation. - Treatment is the **consequence** of early detection, not the primary benefit of the screening process itself. - The unique value of screening lies in **detection**, not treatment per se. *Providing support for patients after diagnosis* - **Patient support** is an important aspect of healthcare but is not the purpose of screening programs. - This is **post-diagnostic care**, which follows after the screening process has identified cases. *Identifying all potential cases of a disease* - **Screening tests** cannot identify all cases due to inherent limitations in **sensitivity** and **specificity**. - Screening aims to identify a significant proportion of cases in a population, accepting that some will be missed (**false negatives**) and some healthy individuals may test positive (**false positives**).

Q: Which of the following is a non-motile bacterium?

Clostridium perfringens. ***Clostridium perfringens*** - *Clostridium perfringens* is unique among the *Clostridium* species for being **non-motile**, lacking flagella. - This immotility distinguishes it from other closely related bacteria and is an important characteristic in its identification. *Vibrio* - *Vibrio* species are **highly motile**, possessing a single **polar flagellum** that enables rapid movement in liquid environments. - Their motility is crucial for their survival and pathogenesis, particularly in aquatic habitats and the human intestine. *Legionella* - *Legionella* species, including *Legionella pneumophila*, are **motile** by means of one or more **polar flagella**. - Their motility is important for disseminating within water systems and for infecting macrophages. *Clostridium septicum* - *Clostridium septicum* is a **motile** bacterium, possessing **peritrichous flagella** that allow it to move through tissues. - Its motility contributes to its ability to spread rapidly in infected hosts, often causing severe gas gangrene.

Q: Which of the following is non-motile:

Burkholderia mallei. ***Burkholderia mallei*** - This bacterium is notably **non-motile**, lacking flagella, which is a key characteristic differentiating it from other members of its genus. - It is a **facultative intracellular pathogen** capable of surviving within host cells, primarily causing **glanders** in equids and occasional human infections. - Its immobility is a significant feature in its identification and pathogenesis. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - This bacterium is highly **motile** due to the presence of **polar flagella**. - Its motility contributes to its ability to colonize and invade host tissues, common in opportunistic infections. *Burkholderia pseudomallei* - This species is known to be **motile** by means of flagella, which aids its survival and dissemination in diverse environments and within a host. - It is the causative agent of **melioidosis**, a severe infectious disease. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Burkholderia mallei** is indeed non-motile, making it a correct choice among the provided options. - The other specified bacteria, *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* and *Burkholderia pseudomallei*, are motile.

Q: Phagocytosis of mycobacterium tuberculosis by macrophages is mainly mediated by:

Interferon Gamma. ***Interferon Gamma*** - **Interferon gamma (IFN-γ)** is the most critical cytokine for **macrophage activation** in tuberculosis, enabling effective phagocytosis and intracellular killing of **Mycobacterium tuberculosis**. - IFN-γ (produced by **Th1 cells** and **NK cells**) primes macrophages by: - Enhancing **phagosome-lysosome fusion** - Increasing expression of **Fc receptors** and **complement receptors** for better opsonization - Stimulating production of **reactive oxygen species (ROS)** and **nitric oxide (NO)** - Upregulating **MHC class II** for improved antigen presentation - Without IFN-γ, macrophages cannot effectively control intracellular mycobacterial growth (as seen in **IFN-γ or IL-12 receptor deficiencies** leading to disseminated mycobacterial infections). *Interleukin 6* - **IL-6** is a pro-inflammatory cytokine involved in **acute-phase responses**, fever induction, and B-cell differentiation. - While it contributes to systemic inflammatory responses in TB, it does not directly activate macrophages for mycobacterial phagocytosis and killing. *Interleukin 3* - **IL-3** is a **hematopoietic growth factor** that promotes proliferation and differentiation of myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells in bone marrow. - It plays no direct role in the effector functions of mature macrophages against *M. tuberculosis*. *Interleukin 12* - **IL-12** (produced by macrophages and dendritic cells) is essential for initiating **Th1 immunity** by promoting differentiation of naive CD4+ T cells into **Th1 cells** that produce IFN-γ. - IL-12 acts **upstream** of IFN-γ in the immune cascade but does not directly mediate macrophage phagocytic function. - The **IL-12/IFN-γ axis** is critical for TB immunity, but IFN-γ is the direct macrophage activator.

Question 1

Which of the following is not true about the Vi polysaccharide vaccine for typhoid?

Accepted Answer

Given at birth

Answer

Given intramuscularly

Answer

Revaccination at 3 years

Answer

Single dose is given

Question 2

Human, animal, fomite or objects from which infective organism enters the host is called?

Accepted Answer

Source of infection

Answer

Infective Reservoir

Answer

Infective Carrier

Answer

None of the above

Question 3

What is the definition of a reservoir in the context of infectious diseases?

Accepted Answer

Person, animal or substance in which infectious agent lives and multiplies

Answer

Person, animal or object from which infectious agent is transmitted to host

Answer

Person or animal in which infectious agent causes a disease

Answer

Person or animal that transmits the infectious agent mechanically

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT one of Bradford Hill's criteria for causation?

Accepted Answer

Absence of temporal relationship

Answer

Consistency of association

Answer

Specificity of association

Answer

Strength of association

Question 5

What is the most important criterion in a causal relationship hypothesis?

Accepted Answer

Temporal association

Answer

Coherence of association

Answer

Specificity of association

Answer

Strength of association

Question 6

What is the primary benefit of screening for diseases?

Accepted Answer

Early detection of diseases

Answer

Providing support for patients after diagnosis

Answer

Identifying all potential cases of a disease

Answer

Timely treatment of identified conditions

Question 7

Multiphasic screening means-

Accepted Answer

Application of two or more screening tests in combination at one time

Answer

Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different geographical areas

Answer

Application of separate screening tests for different diseases

Answer

Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different times

Question 8

Which of the following is a non-motile bacterium?

Accepted Answer

Clostridium perfringens

Answer

Vibrio

Answer

Legionella

Answer

Clostridium septicum

Question 9

Which of the following is non-motile:

Accepted Answer

Burkholderia mallei

Answer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer

Burkholderia pseudomallei

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

Phagocytosis of mycobacterium tuberculosis by macrophages is mainly mediated by:

Accepted Answer

Interferon Gamma

Answer

Interleukin 6

Answer

Interleukin 3

Answer

Interleukin 12

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

Microbiology