NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?

Passive. ***Passive*** - Under the NTEP, **passive screening** involves individuals presenting to health facilities with symptoms suggestive of TB. - This method relies on **patient self-reporting** and healthcare provider suspicion, rather than active outreach. - Passive case finding is the **primary screening strategy** used across the general population in the NTEP framework. *Active* - **Active screening** involves community-based interventions to proactively identify individuals with TB, often in high-risk populations. - While active case finding is crucial for specific vulnerable groups (contacts, HIV patients, etc.), it is **not the primary screening method** under the standard NTEP framework for initial detection across the entire population. *Mass* - **Mass screening** involves testing large numbers of people in the general population, regardless of symptoms, to detect disease. - This is generally **cost-prohibitive** and not routinely implemented as a primary screening strategy for TB by the NTEP due to resource limitations and low yield in the general population. *None of the options* - **Passive screening** is indeed a primary method used under the NTEP, making this option incorrect. - The NTEP heavily relies on individuals seeking care when they experience symptoms, which aligns with the definition of passive case finding.

Q: What test is used to detect the presence of semen in the vaginal secretions of a rape victim?

Acid phosphatase test. ***Acid phosphatase test*** - The **acid phosphatase test** is used to detect the presence of **spermatozoa** in vaginal secretions by identifying the prostatic enzyme **acid phosphatase**, which is a component of semen. - A positive result indicates recent sexual intercourse and is crucial in **forensic investigations** of sexual assault. *Methylene blue staining* - **Methylene blue staining** is commonly used to visualize cells and bacteria in various samples, particularly for identifying **bacterial vaginosis** via clue cells. - It is not specifically used for the detection of semen or spermatozoa in sexual assault cases. *Lugol's iodine test* - **Lugol's iodine** is primarily used to detect **glycogen** in cervical cells during a Schiller test, which helps identify abnormal or cancerous cells. - It is not a standard test for detecting the presence of semen in sexual assault investigations. *Benzidine test* - The **benzidine test** was historically used as a preliminary test for the presence of **blood** by detecting hemoglobin. - However, due to its **carcinogenic properties**, it has largely been replaced by safer and more specific tests for blood detection.

Q: Most common cause of Addison's Disease in India is:

Tuberculosis. ***Tuberculosis*** - In India, **tuberculosis** is the most common cause of **Addison's disease** due to the high prevalence of TB infections. - Adrenal involvement in TB can lead to gradual destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in **adrenal insufficiency**. *Autoimmune* - **Autoimmune adrenalitis** is the leading cause of Addison's disease in developed Western countries. - It involves the destruction of adrenal cortical cells by the body's own immune system, often associated with other autoimmune conditions. *Malignancy* - **Malignancy**, particularly metastatic cancer to the adrenals, can cause adrenal insufficiency but is a less common primary cause of Addison's disease overall. - While possible, it is not the most prevalent cause in India compared to infectious etiologies. *HIV* - **HIV infection** can lead to adrenal dysfunction, but it's typically through opportunistic infections like CMV, cryptococcosis, or direct HIV effects, rather than being the direct cause of widespread adrenal destruction. - It increases the risk of adrenal insufficiency but is not the most common etiology in India for Addison's disease.

Q: Most common complication of diphtheria is -

Myocarditis. ***Myocarditis*** - Diphtheria toxin can directly damage myocardial cells, leading to inflammation and dysfunction of the heart muscle, making **myocarditis** the most common and serious complication. - This can result in **heart failure**, arrhythmias, and even death, highlighting its significance in diphtheria. *Pneumonia* - While respiratory complications can occur in diphtheria, **pneumonia** is not the most common or life-threatening complication associated with the diphtheria toxin itself. - Secondary bacterial infections might lead to pneumonia, but it is not a direct toxic effect like myocarditis. *Meningitis* - **Meningitis**, an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, is an extremely rare complication of diphtheria. - Diphtheria primarily affects the upper respiratory tract and heart [1], with neurological complications typically manifesting as neuropathies rather than meningitis. *Endocarditis* - Although diphtheria can cause cardiac complications, **endocarditis** (inflammation of the heart's inner lining, including the valves) is not a common complication. - Myocarditis, due to the direct toxic effect on heart muscle, is far more prevalent than endocarditis in diphtheria.

Q: Heating a bacterial sample at 60°C for 30 minutes would isolate which of the following?

Enterococcus species. ***Enterococcus species*** - **Enterococcus species** are known for their ability to survive harsh conditions, including temperatures of **60°C for at least 30 minutes**. - This characteristic is often used in laboratories for selective isolation and differentiation from other bacteria like streptococci and staphylococci. *Staphylococci* - While some staphylococci are quite hardy, most species, including *Staphylococcus aureus*, typically do not tolerate **60°C for 30 minutes** as well as enterococci. - Exposure to this temperature would likely significantly reduce the viability of most staphylococcal species, making their isolation difficult. *Micrococci* - **Micrococci** are generally less heat-tolerant than enterococci and would likely be killed or severely inhibited by exposure to **60°C for 30 minutes**. - They are generally susceptible to temperatures that would be survivable for thermoduric bacteria. *Streptococci* - Most **streptococcal species** are not highly resistant to heat and would be inactivated by prolonged exposure to **60°C**. - This heat treatment is often used in laboratory procedures to differentiate enterococci from other streptococci, as enterococci were historically classified as Group D streptococci.

Q: Most common site for Staphylococcus carriage?

Nose. ***Nose*** - The **anterior nares** are the most common site for **Staphylococcus aureus** colonization in healthy individuals. - Nasal carriage is a significant risk factor for subsequent **Staphylococcus aureus infections**, both self-acquired and transmitted to others. *Skin* - While Staphylococcus aureus can colonize the skin, especially in areas like the axillae and groin, it is **less common** as a primary carrier site compared to the nose. - Skin colonization often occurs due to spread from **nasal carriage**. *Oropharynx* - The oropharynx can be colonized by various bacteria, but it is **not the primary or most common site** for Staphylococcus aureus carriage. - Other bacteria like **Streptococcus species** are more prevalent colonizers of the oropharynx. *Perineum* - The perineum can harbor Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in specific populations or in individuals with certain skin conditions, but it is **not the most common or primary site** of colonization. - Colonization here is often **secondary** to nasal carriage or contact with contaminated surfaces.

Q: Von Magnus phenomenon:

Virus yields have high hemagglutination but low infectivity. ***Virus yields have high hemagglutination but low infectivity*** - The **von Magnus phenomenon** describes the serial passaging of influenza virus at high multiplicity of infection, leading to the production of **defective interfering particles (DIPs)**. - These DIPs retain their ability to **hemagglutinate** (due to intact hemagglutinin proteins) but have lost significant portions of their genome, resulting in **low infectivity**. *Is a normal replicative cycle* - The von Magnus phenomenon is characterized by an **abnormal replicative cycle** and the accumulation of defective viral particles. - A normal replicative cycle involves the production of **fully infectious** viral progeny. *Virus yield has low hemagglutination* - The abnormal particles produced during the von Magnus phenomenon, known as **defective interfering particles (DIPs)**, typically retain their **hemagglutinin protein**. - This allows them to still induce **hemagglutination**, despite their reduced infectivity. *Virus has high infectivity* - A hallmark of the von Magnus phenomenon is the production of virus particles with **significantly reduced infectivity**. - This is due to the deletion or mutation of essential genetic material necessary for a productive infection.

Q: To which part of an antigen do monoclonal antibodies specifically bind?

Specific epitope on the antigen. ***Specific epitope on the antigen*** - Monoclonal antibodies are designed to recognize and bind to a **unique, specific region** on an antigen, known as an **epitope**. - This high specificity is crucial for their clinical applications, such as targeted therapies and diagnostic tests. *Both the epitope and the paratope* - The **epitope** is the part of the antigen, while the **paratope** is the part of the antibody that binds to the epitope. - An antibody binds to an epitope, not to both itself and its own binding site. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there is a correct answer among the choices provided, which accurately describes the binding site of monoclonal antibodies. *Part of the antibody that binds to the epitope* - This describes the **paratope**, which is the antigen-binding site on the antibody, not the part of the antigen to which the antibody binds. - The question specifically asks about the part of the antigen.

Q: Most common age related change in vitreous?

Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD). ***Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)*** - As we age, the **vitreous body** undergoes liquefaction and shrinkage, leading to its separation from the **retina**, most commonly posteriorly. - This is a very common and usually benign age-related phenomenon, often presenting with **floaters** and **flashes of light**. *Anterior vitreous detachment* - **Anterior vitreous detachment** is much less common than PVD and not typically considered the most frequent age-related change. - It often occurs secondary to **trauma** or specific surgical procedures rather than spontaneous aging alone. *Vitreous hemorrhage* - **Vitreous hemorrhage** is a pathological condition involving bleeding into the vitreous humor, often due to **diabetic retinopathy**, retinal tears, or trauma. - It is not a normal age-related change but a complication of underlying disease. *Vitritis* - **Vitritis** refers to inflammation of the vitreous humor, commonly associated with **uveitis** or infections. - It is an inflammatory disease process, not a physiological age-related degeneration of the vitreous.

Q: Most common malignant tumor of the heart in adults

Cardiac Sarcoma. ***Cardiac Sarcoma*** - **Cardiac sarcomas** are the most common type of **primary malignant tumor** of the heart in adults, accounting for about 95% of primary malignant cardiac tumors. - **Angiosarcoma** is the most common subtype (approximately 33-50% of all cardiac sarcomas), typically originating from the **right atrium**. - These tumors are highly aggressive with rapid growth, early metastasis, and poor prognosis. - They commonly present with right-sided heart failure, pericardial effusion, or constitutional symptoms. *Rhabdomyoma* - **Rhabdomyomas** are the most common **primary cardiac tumors in infants and children** (60-80% of pediatric cardiac tumors), not adults. - These tumors are **benign** and strongly associated with tuberous sclerosis. - They often spontaneously regress after birth. *Lipoma* - **Lipomas** are **benign tumors** composed of mature adipocytes and account for about 10% of benign cardiac tumors. - They are typically asymptomatic and found incidentally. - They are not malignant and therefore not relevant to this question about malignant tumors. *Paraganglioma* - **Paragangliomas** (pheochromocytomas of the heart) are rare neuroendocrine tumors. - They are typically **benign** (though can be locally invasive) and may be hormonally active, causing catecholamine-related symptoms. - They represent less than 1% of cardiac tumors and are not the most common malignant cardiac tumor.

Question 1

Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?

Accepted Answer

Passive

Answer

Active

Answer

Mass

Answer

None of the options

Question 2

What test is used to detect the presence of semen in the vaginal secretions of a rape victim?

Accepted Answer

Acid phosphatase test

Answer

Methylene blue staining

Answer

Benzidine test

Answer

Lugol's iodine test

Question 3

Most common cause of Addison's Disease in India is:

Accepted Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Autoimmune

Answer

HIV

Answer

Malignancy

Question 4

Most common complication of diphtheria is -

Accepted Answer

Myocarditis

Answer

Pneumonia

Answer

Meningitis

Answer

Endocarditis

Question 5

Heating a bacterial sample at 60°C for 30 minutes would isolate which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Enterococcus species

Answer

Staphylococci

Answer

Micrococci

Answer

Streptococci

Question 6

Most common site for Staphylococcus carriage?

Accepted Answer

Nose

Answer

Skin

Answer

Oropharynx

Answer

Perineum

Question 7

Von Magnus phenomenon:

Accepted Answer

Virus yields have high hemagglutination but low infectivity

Answer

Virus has high infectivity

Answer

Is a normal replicative cycle

Answer

Virus yield has low hemagglutination

Question 8

To which part of an antigen do monoclonal antibodies specifically bind?

Accepted Answer

Specific epitope on the antigen

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Both the epitope and the paratope

Answer

Part of the antibody that binds to the epitope

Question 9

Most common age related change in vitreous?

Accepted Answer

Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)

Answer

Anterior vitreous detachment

Answer

Vitreous hemorrhage

Answer

Vitritis

Question 10

Most common malignant tumor of the heart in adults

Accepted Answer

Cardiac Sarcoma

Answer

Paraganglioma

Answer

Rhabdomyoma

Answer

Lipoma

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

Forensic Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pathology