NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the femoral nerve?

Obturator externus. ***Obturator externus*** - The **obturator externus** muscle is primarily supplied by the **obturator nerve** (L3-L4), which arises from the lumbar plexus, not the femoral nerve. - Its main function is the **lateral rotation of the thigh** at the hip joint. *Pectineus* - The **pectineus** muscle receives dual innervation, typically from both the **femoral nerve** (L2-L4) and the obturator nerve. - It aids in **adduction**, **flexion**, and **medial rotation** of the thigh. *Sartorius* - The **sartorius** muscle is entirely supplied by the **femoral nerve** (L2-L3). - It is responsible for **flexing, abducting, and laterally rotating the thigh** at the hip, and flexing the leg at the knee. *Vastus medialis* - The **vastus medialis** is one of the four muscles forming the quadriceps femoris group, all of which are exclusively supplied by the **femoral nerve** (L2-L4). - This muscle is crucial for **extending the leg** at the knee joint.

Q: Superior gluteal nerve does not supply?

Gluteus maximus. ***Gluteus maximus*** - The **gluteus maximus** muscle is primarily innervated by the **inferior gluteal nerve** (L5, S1, S2), not the superior gluteal nerve. - Its main actions include **extension** and **external rotation** of the hip. *Tensor fasciae latae* - The **tensor fasciae latae** is innervated by the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - This muscle helps in **flexion**, **abduction**, and **internal rotation** of the hip. *Gluteus medius* - The **gluteus medius** muscle receives its innervation from the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - It is a primary **abductor** and **internal rotator** of the hip, crucial for pelvic stability. *Gluteus minimus* - The **gluteus minimus** is also innervated by the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - Its functions are similar to the gluteus medius, including **abduction** and **internal rotation** of the hip.

Q: Which is the first steroid intermediate formed in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones?

Pregnenolone. ***Pregnenolone*** - **Pregnenolone** is the **first steroid intermediate** formed from **cholesterol** in steroidogenesis - The conversion occurs in mitochondria via the **cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme (P450scc/CYP11A1)** - This is the **rate-limiting step** in steroid hormone biosynthesis - From pregnenolone, all other steroid hormones are subsequently synthesized *Progesterone* - Progesterone is the **second intermediate**, formed from pregnenolone - It serves as a precursor for glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens - Not the first intermediate from cholesterol *Glucocorticoid* - Glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol) are **end products**, not intermediates - Formed several steps downstream from cholesterol via pregnenolone and progesterone *Mineralocorticoid* - Mineralocorticoids (e.g., aldosterone) are **end products**, not intermediates - Synthesized from progesterone through multiple enzymatic steps *Estradiol* - Estradiol is a **late-stage product** synthesized from androgens - Requires aromatase enzyme for conversion from testosterone - Multiple steps removed from the initial cholesterol conversion

Q: What is the immediate source of energy for cellular processes?

ATP. ***ATP*** - **Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)** is the direct and immediate source of energy for almost all cellular processes, including **muscle contraction**, **active transport**, and **biosynthesis**. - Its high-energy phosphate bonds release energy upon hydrolysis, driving various cellular functions. *Cori's cycle* - The **Cori cycle** involves the interconversion of **lactate** and **glucose** between the muscle and the liver to regenerate glucose stores. - It is an important metabolic pathway for glucose homeostasis during anaerobic conditions, but it does not directly provide immediate energy for cellular processes. *HMP* - The **Hexose Monophosphate Pathway (HMP)**, also known as the **pentose phosphate pathway**, primarily produces **NADPH** and **ribose-5-phosphate**. - While it generates NADPH for reductive biosynthesis and protects against oxidative stress, it is not an immediate source of energy. *TCA cycle* - The **Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle**, or Krebs cycle, is a central metabolic pathway that oxidizes **acetyl-CoA** to produce **ATP**, **NADH**, and **FADH2**. - While it is a major producer of ATP, it is not the *immediate* source; instead, it generates the precursors that fuel oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP.

Q: Randomization is done to reduce?

Selection bias. ***Selection bias*** - **Randomization** ensures that each participant has an equal chance of being assigned to any study group, which helps to distribute both known and unknown confounding factors evenly. - This process minimizes **selection bias** by promoting comparability between groups, making it more likely that any observed differences are due to the intervention rather than pre-existing differences. *Recall bias* - **Recall bias** occurs when there are systematic differences in the way participants remember or report past exposures or events, often seen in retrospective studies. - While randomization helps control for confounding, it does not directly prevent participants from inaccurately recalling information. *Berksonian bias* - **Berksonian bias** is a form of selection bias where the probability of being admitted to a hospital (or selected into a study) is affected by the presence of a co-morbidity, leading to a distorted association between diseases. - Randomization aims to balance characteristics *within* the study groups once participants are recruited, but it doesn't address biases related to the initial selection into the study population from a larger source. *Reporting bias* - **Reporting bias** refers to selective revealing or suppression of information, either by study participants (e.g., social desirability bias) or by researchers (e.g., only reporting positive findings). - Randomization helps ensure internal validity by creating comparable groups, but it does not prevent individuals from selectively reporting outcomes or experiences.

Q: Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?

Acute Myeloid Leukemia M4. ***M4*** - **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) M4** is associated with **monocytic differentiation**, leading to gum hypertrophy due to infiltration of the gums by leukemic cells [1]. - Patients may present with **gingival bleeding**, pain, and swelling in addition to other systemic symptoms of leukemia. *M3* - Known as **acute promyelocytic leukemia**, it typically presents with **coagulopathy** and not gum hypertrophy [1]. - Characterized by **promyelocytes** with heavy granulation and the presence of **faggot cells** (auer rods) [1]. *M2* - Represents a **myeloblastic type** of acute leukemia but is less commonly associated with **gingival hyperplasia**. - Associated with **more typical myeloid features** and presents with **anemia** and **thrombocytopenia**. *M1* - This is a **minimally differentiated type** of acute myeloid leukemia with **myeloblasts** and no significant differentiating features like gum hypertrophy. - Often presents with **rapid onset of symptoms** related to bone marrow failure, rather than localized gum issues. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 620-622.

Q: Which of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?

Autosomal dominant. ***Autosomal dominant*** - While there are rare autosomal dominant forms, the most common and classic presentation of **Alport's syndrome is X-linked recessive**, affecting males more severely. - This statement is incorrect because it implies that autosomal dominant inheritance is the primary or typical mode, which is not true for the majority of cases. *Nerve deafness* - **Sensorineural hearing loss**, particularly for high frequencies, is a common and characteristic extra-renal manifestation of Alport's syndrome. - This symptom typically progresses with age and is a key diagnostic feature. *Glomerulonephritis* - **Progressive glomerulonephritis** is the hallmark renal feature of Alport's syndrome, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and eventually end-stage renal disease. - It is caused by mutations in collagen type IV genes, which disrupt the integrity of the glomerular basement membrane. *X-linked* - The majority of Alport's syndrome cases (about 85%) are **X-linked recessive**, caused by mutations in the *COL4A5* gene located on the X chromosome. - This explains why males are more severely affected and typically present with earlier onset and more rapid progression of renal disease.

Q: XDR-TB is defined as resistance to which of the following drug combinations?

Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus rifampicin plus amikacin. **Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus rifampicin plus amikacin** - **Extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB)** is defined by resistance to the most effective anti-TB drugs: **isoniazid (INH)**, **rifampicin**, any **fluoroquinolone**, and at least one of the three injectable second-line drugs (**amikacin**, **kanamycin**, or **capreomycin**). - This combination signifies a substantial therapeutic challenge due to limited treatment options and a high risk of treatment failure. *INH plus rifampicin* - Resistance to **INH** and **rifampicin** defines **multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB)**, which is a precursor to XDR-TB but not XDR-TB itself. - While serious, MDR-TB is not as extensively resistant as XDR-TB, as it doesn't include resistance to fluoroquinolones and second-line injectables. *Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus amikacin* - This combination is incomplete for the definition of XDR-TB because it omits **rifampicin** from the core definition. - XDR-TB specifically requires resistance to both **INH** and **rifampicin** (defining MDR-TB), in addition to resistance to a fluoroquinolone and one of the injectable second-line drugs. *Fluoroquinolones plus rifampicin plus kanamycin* - This combination is also incomplete for the definition of XDR-TB as it omits **isoniazid (INH)**, which is one of the two most crucial first-line drugs that characterize MDR-TB. - XDR-TB builds upon MDR-TB's resistance to both INH and rifampicin.

Q: Gastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

Activation of RAS. ***Activation of RAS*** - **RAS mutations** are relatively uncommon in gastric carcinoma compared to other gastrointestinal malignancies. While KRAS mutations can occur in approximately 10-15% of gastric cancers (particularly intestinal type), they are **far less frequent** than in **pancreatic adenocarcinoma** (~90%) or **colorectal carcinoma** (~40%). - In the context of gastric carcinoma, RAS pathway alterations are **not considered a major oncogenic driver** compared to the other molecular changes listed, making this the **LEAST characteristically associated** alteration. *Inactivation of p53* - **Inactivation of the p53 tumor suppressor gene** is one of the most frequent molecular events in gastric carcinoma, occurring in approximately **50-60% of cases**. - Loss of p53 function leads to genomic instability, uncontrolled cell proliferation, and resistance to apoptosis, contributing significantly to **tumorigenesis** and **poor prognosis**. *Over expression of C-met* - **Overexpression of C-MET**, a receptor tyrosine kinase for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), is commonly observed in gastric carcinoma (30-40% of cases) and is strongly linked to **tumor growth**, **invasion**, and **metastasis**. - C-MET amplification and overexpression promote cell proliferation, survival, migration, and angiogenesis, making it an important **therapeutic target** in advanced gastric cancer. *Over expression of C-erb* - **Overexpression of C-erbB-2 (HER2/neu)** is found in approximately **10-20% of gastric adenocarcinomas**, particularly the intestinal type. - HER2 amplification or overexpression is a significant **prognostic and predictive biomarker**, and is specifically targeted by **trastuzumab** (Herceptin) therapy in HER2-positive advanced gastric cancer, improving survival outcomes.

Q: Labour pain in uterus is carried by

Sympathetic nerves. ***Sympathetic nerves*** - Pain signals from the **uterus** during the first stage of labor (cervical dilation and uterine contractions) are transmitted via **visceral afferent fibers that accompany the sympathetic nerves** through the **hypogastric plexus**. - These fibers synapse in the **thoracolumbar spinal cord** at **T10-L1 segments**, leading to referred pain in these dermatomes. - The pathway is: Uterus → Uterine plexus → Superior hypogastric plexus → Sympathetic chain → T10-L1 dorsal roots. *Splanchnic nerve* - While visceral afferents do travel with splanchnic nerves in the thoracoabdominal region, for **uterine pain** specifically, the standard medical terminology refers to **sympathetic nerves** and the **hypogastric plexus** as the primary pathway. - Splanchnic nerves typically refer to thoracic sympathetic contributions (T5-T12) to upper abdominal viscera. *Pudendal nerve* - The **pudendal nerve (S2-S4)** primarily innervates the perineum, external genitalia, and pelvic floor structures. - It transmits pain during the **second stage of labor**, particularly with stretching of the perineum and vaginal distension, but **not from the uterus itself**. *Parasympathetic nerves* - **Parasympathetic innervation (S2-S4 via pelvic splanchnic nerves)** to the uterus influences motor function but does **not transmit nociceptive (pain) signals** during labor. - These nerves are involved in visceral reflexes and efferent control, not the primary afferent pain pathway.

Question 1

Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the femoral nerve?

Accepted Answer

Obturator externus

Answer

Pectineus

Answer

Sartorius

Answer

Vastus medialis

Question 2

Superior gluteal nerve does not supply?

Accepted Answer

Gluteus maximus

Answer

Tensor fasciae latae

Answer

Gluteus medius

Answer

Gluteus minimus

Question 3

Which is the first steroid intermediate formed in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones?

Accepted Answer

Pregnenolone

Answer

Glucocorticoid

Answer

Mineralocorticoid

Answer

Estradiol

Question 4

What is the immediate source of energy for cellular processes?

Accepted Answer

ATP

Answer

Cori's cycle

Answer

HMP

Answer

TCA cycle

Question 5

Randomization is done to reduce?

Accepted Answer

Selection bias

Answer

Recall bias

Answer

Berksonian bias

Answer

Reporting bias

Question 6

Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?

Accepted Answer

Acute Myeloid Leukemia M4

Answer

Acute Myeloid Leukemia M2

Answer

Acute Myeloid Leukemia M3

Answer

Acute Myeloid Leukemia M1

Question 7

Which of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Autosomal dominant

Answer

Nerve deafness

Answer

Glomerulonephritis

Answer

X-linked

Question 8

XDR-TB is defined as resistance to which of the following drug combinations?

Accepted Answer

Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus rifampicin plus amikacin

Answer

INH plus rifampicin

Answer

Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus amikacin

Answer

Fluoroquinolones plus rifampicin plus kanamycin

Question 9

Gastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Activation of RAS

Answer

Over expression of C-met

Answer

Inactivation of p53

Answer

Over expression of C-erb

Question 10

Labour pain in uterus is carried by

Accepted Answer

Sympathetic nerves

Answer

Pudendal nerve

Answer

Parasympathetic nerves

Answer

Splanchnic nerve

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Dental

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pathology

Physiology