NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: What is the composition of soda lime?

4% NaOH, 80% Ca(OH)2, trace elements, 15% H2O. ***4% NaOH, 80% Ca(OH)2, trace elements, 15% H2O*** - **Soda lime** is primarily composed of **calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2)**, typically around 80%, which acts as the main absorbent. - It also contains **sodium hydroxide (NaOH)**, around 4%, which serves as an activator, along with approximately 15% **water (H2O)** to facilitate the reaction, and **trace elements** like potassium hydroxide. *4% NaOH, 90% Ca(OH)2, 1% KOH, 5% H2O* - This option shows a higher percentage of **calcium hydroxide (90%)** and a lower percentage of **water (5%)** than the standard composition. - The reduced water content might impair the efficiency of **carbon dioxide absorption**. *4% NaOH, 80% Ca(OH)2, 1% KOH, 15% H2O* - While the percentages of NaOH, Ca(OH)2, and H2O are closer to correct, this option specifically mentions **potassium hydroxide (KOH)** as a distinct component at 1%, rather than general trace elements. - The standard composition usually encompasses trace elements more broadly, and specific percentages for KOH are not always highlighted as a primary component. *15% NaOH, 80% Ca(OH)2, trace elements, 4% H2O* - This composition incorrectly suggests a significantly higher percentage of **sodium hydroxide (15%)** and a critically low percentage of **water (4%)**. - A higher NaOH concentration can increase the risk of **carbon monoxide formation** from halogenated anesthetics, and inadequate water reduces absorptive capacity.

Q: Which of the following is a metabolic disorder inherited in an X-linked manner?

Adrenoleukodystrophy. ***Adrenoleukodystrophy*** - **Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD)** is an **X-linked recessive disorder** that affects the metabolism of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs). - It leads to the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, as well as adrenal gland insufficiency. *Phenylketonuria* - **Phenylketonuria (PKU)** is an **autosomal recessive metabolic disorder** caused by a defect in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. - It results in the accumulation of phenylalanine, leading to intellectual disability if not treated with a specialized diet. *Duchenne muscular dystrophy* - While **Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)** is indeed an **X-linked recessive disorder**, it is primarily a muscle disorder, not a metabolic disorder in the classic sense. - It involves a mutation in the **dystrophin gene**, leading to progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. *Marfan syndrome* - **Marfan syndrome** is an **autosomal dominant disorder** affecting connective tissue. - It is caused by a mutation in the **FBN1 gene**, which codes for fibrillin-1, and primarily affects the skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular systems.

Q: Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?

Bullous pemphigoid. ***Bullous pemphigoid*** - **Pruritus**, often severe, is a common and early symptom of bullous pemphigoid, often preceding the appearance of skin lesions. - The disease involves autoantibodies against **hemidesmosomal proteins** (BPAG1, BPAG2), leading to subepidermal blister formation. *Pemphigus foliaceous* - This condition is characterized by **superficial blistering** and erosions, but **pruritus is typically mild or absent**. - Blisters form in the **granular layer of the epidermis** due to autoantibodies against desmoglein 1. *Pemphigus vulgaris* - Patients with pemphigus vulgaris present with **flaccid blisters and erosions**, mainly affecting the skin and mucous membranes, but **pruritus is not a prominent feature**. - The disease involves intraepidermal blistering caused by autoantibodies targeting **desmoglein 3 (and sometimes desmoglein 1)**. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect, as **pruritus is a characteristic symptom of bullous pemphigoid**.

Q: Most common precipitant of Raynaud's phenomenon is

Exposure to cold. ***Exposure to cold*** - **Exposure to cold temperatures**, even mild cold, is the most frequent and characteristic trigger for **vasoconstriction** in Raynaud's phenomenon. - This leads to the classic **triphasic color changes** (white, blue, red) in the digits due to restricted blood flow. *Exposure to heat* - **Exposure to heat** generally causes **vasodilation**, which would alleviate rather than precipitate the symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. - While sudden temperature changes can sometimes be a factor, direct heat exposure is not a primary recognized trigger. *Psychosocial triggers* - **Emotional stress** and anxiety can indeed precipitate Raynaud's episodes in some individuals, as the **sympathetic nervous system** plays a role in vasoconstriction. - However, **cold exposure** remains the most common and potent precipitating factor across the majority of cases. *Exertion* - **Physical exertion** typically leads to **vasodilation** in working muscles and increased blood flow to the skin for heat dissipation. - It is not a common or direct precipitant of the localized vasoconstrictive attacks seen in Raynaud's phenomenon.

Q: What is the FDA-recommended time interval between Mifepristone and Misoprostol administration in medical termination of pregnancy?

24-48 hours. ***24-48 hours*** - The FDA-approved protocol for medical abortion with mifepristone and misoprostol specifies a **24- to 48-hour interval** between the administration of the two drugs. - This timing ensures optimal efficacy as it allows mifepristone to adequately sensitize the uterus to the effects of misoprostol. *48 hours* - While 48 hours falls within the recommended range, specifically stating "48 hours" as the only option is less precise than the **24-48 hour window**. - No specific clinical advantage or disadvantage is generally reported for waiting exactly 48 hours over, for instance, 24 hours. *96 hours* - A 96-hour interval is significantly longer than the **FDA-recommended window** and is not part of the standard, evidence-based protocol. - Delaying misoprostol administration beyond 48 hours may **reduce the effectiveness** of the medical abortion and increase the risk of complications. *72 hours* - A 72-hour interval exceeds the upper limit of the **FDA-recommended window** for optimal efficacy. - While some studies have explored extended intervals, the *standard clinical practice* and FDA guidelines do not endorse 72 hours as the primary recommended interval.

Q: Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of endometriosis?

Combined oral contraceptives. ***Combined oral contraceptives*** - **Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)** are the **most commonly used first-line medical treatment** for endometriosis, as they suppress ovulation and reduce estrogen production, thereby reducing endometrial lesion growth. - They help manage **endometriosis-associated pain** by decreasing menstrual flow and uterine contractions. - COCs are widely prescribed due to their efficacy, safety profile, and additional contraceptive benefits. *Letrozole* - **Letrozole** is an aromatase inhibitor that reduces local estrogen production and has shown efficacy in treating endometriosis, particularly in refractory cases. - However, it is **not commonly used as first-line therapy** due to potential side effects (bone density concerns, teratogenicity) and is typically reserved for cases resistant to conventional hormonal therapy. - It may be used in combination with progestins for better outcomes. *Mifepristone* - **Mifepristone** is an antiprogestin primarily used for medical abortion or in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome. - It works by blocking **progesterone receptors** and is not a standard treatment for endometriosis. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **combined oral contraceptives** are the most widely accepted and commonly used treatment for endometriosis.

Q: What should be done if 2 OCPs are missed on days 17-18 of the cycle?

Both a and b. ***Both a and b*** - When **two OCPs are missed** on days 17-18 (Week 3) of the cycle, the recommended approach combines two actions to restore contraceptive protection. - The woman should **take two pills on the next two days** to compensate for the missed doses and restore hormonal levels quickly. - Additionally, **backup contraception should be used for at least 7 days** to ensure contraceptive effectiveness, as the missed pills during Week 3 could compromise protection and increase the risk of ovulation. - Both actions together address the hormonal gap and provide adequate contraceptive coverage. *Take 2 pills on the next 2 days* - While this action helps **reestablish hormone levels** after missing two pills, it is **insufficient on its own**. - Without concurrent backup contraception, there remains a risk of **ovulation** and **unintended pregnancy** during the recovery period. - This must be combined with backup contraceptive methods for 7 days. *Use back up contraceptive* - Using **backup contraception** is essential because missing two pills in Week 3 increases the risk of **ovulation**. - However, backup contraception alone without resuming the pill regimen (with catch-up dosing) would not adequately restore the hormonal cycle. - Both resuming pills appropriately and using backup methods are necessary. *Continue taking single pill per day* - Simply continuing with one pill per day without any catch-up dosing would leave a **hormonal gap** from the two missed pills. - This approach does not compensate for the **missed active hormones**, leaving inadequate hormone levels for contraceptive protection. - Without catch-up dosing and backup contraception, the risk of **ovulation** and **pregnancy** remains significantly elevated.

Q: Thomas test is used for testing?

Hip flexor tightness. ***Hip flexor tightness*** - The **Thomas test** is a diagnostic maneuver used specifically to assess for the presence of **flexion contractures** within the hip joint. - It helps identify tightness in muscles such as the **iliopsoas**, rectus femoris, and tensor fasciae latae. *Knee flexion* - While hip flexor tightness can indirectly affect knee position, the Thomas test does not primarily measure the range of motion of **knee flexion** itself. - **Other tests**, such as goniometric measurements of the knee joint, are used to assess knee flexion directly. *Hip abduction* - The Thomas test is not designed to evaluate **hip abduction** range of motion. - Hip abduction is tested through maneuvers that move the leg away from the midline of the body, often with the patient in a side-lying or supine position, assessing muscles like the **gluteus medius** and minimus. *Hip rotation* - The Thomas test does not assess **hip rotation** (internal or external). - Hip rotation is typically evaluated with the hip and knee flexed to 90 degrees, assessing the rotational range of the **femoral head within the acetabulum**.

Q: Polyarticular onset JRA involves more than how many joints?

4. ***4*** - **Polyarticular onset Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis (JRA)**, now often referred to as **Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)**, is defined by the involvement of **five or more joints** within the first six months of the disease. Therefore, "more than 4" correctly describes this threshold. - This subtype of JIA accounts for approximately 30% of all JIA cases and can be further classified into rheumatoid factor-positive and rheumatoid factor-negative forms. *3* - Involvement of **fewer than five joints** (i.e., four or fewer) within the first six months would classify the disease as **oligoarticular JIA**, a distinct and often milder subtype. - Oligoarticular JIA is the most common subtype and often affects large joints like the knees. *5* - While **five or more joints** is the diagnostic criterion for polyarticular JIA, stating "more than 5" would be incorrect as exactly five joints already falls within the polyarticular definition. - The threshold is **equal to or greater than five joints**, not strictly exceeding five. *6* - Specifying "more than 6" joints would exclude cases where 5 or 6 joints are involved, which are still considered polyarticular JIA. - The key diagnostic number is **five**, meaning "more than 4" encompasses the correct definition.

Q: Reactionary Hemorrhage occurs due to?

Dislodgement of clot. ***Dislodgement of clot*** - **Reactionary hemorrhage** occurs within the first 24 hours post-surgery as the initial **vasoconstriction** and **blood pressure drop** from anesthesia resolve. - As blood pressure normalizes and peripheral vessels dilate, a **clot** that formed in a previously bleeding vessel becomes dislodged, leading to bleeding. *Infection* - **Infection** can cause secondary hemorrhage, but this typically occurs later, usually several days to weeks after surgery, due to tissue necrosis and erosion of blood vessels. - It is not the primary mechanism for hemorrhage occurring within the first 24 hours. *Damage to a blood vessel* - **Damage to a blood vessel** during surgery is a cause of primary hemorrhage, which occurs during or immediately after the procedure. - While it initiates the potential for bleeding, reactionary hemorrhage specifically refers to bleeding that resumes due to changes in patient physiology post-operatively, rather than ongoing vessel damage. *Pressure necrosis* - **Pressure necrosis** refers to tissue death due to sustained external pressure, often leading to skin breakdown or deep tissue injury. - It does not directly cause reactionary hemorrhage, although necrotic tissue could potentially contribute to later secondary hemorrhage if a vessel erodes.

Question 1

What is the composition of soda lime?

Accepted Answer

4% NaOH, 80% Ca(OH)2, trace elements, 15% H2O

Answer

4% NaOH, 90% Ca(OH)2, 1% KOH, 5% H2O

Answer

15% NaOH, 80% Ca(OH)2, trace elements, 4% H2O

Answer

4% NaOH, 80% Ca(OH)2, 1% KOH, 15% H2O

Question 2

Which of the following is a metabolic disorder inherited in an X-linked manner?

Accepted Answer

Adrenoleukodystrophy

Answer

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Answer

Phenylketonuria

Answer

Marfan syndrome

Question 3

Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Bullous pemphigoid

Answer

Pemphigus foliaceous

Answer

Pemphigus vulgaris

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

Most common precipitant of Raynaud's phenomenon is

Accepted Answer

Exposure to cold

Answer

Exposure to heat

Answer

Psychosocial triggers

Answer

Exertion

Question 5

What is the FDA-recommended time interval between Mifepristone and Misoprostol administration in medical termination of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

24-48 hours

Answer

96 hours

Answer

48 hours

Answer

72 hours

Question 6

Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of endometriosis?

Accepted Answer

Combined oral contraceptives

Answer

None of the above

Answer

Letrozole

Answer

Mifepristone

Question 7

What should be done if 2 OCPs are missed on days 17-18 of the cycle?

Accepted Answer

Both a and b

Answer

Take 2 pills on the next 2 days

Answer

Continue taking single pill per day

Answer

Use back up contraceptive

Question 8

Thomas test is used for testing?

Accepted Answer

Hip flexor tightness

Answer

Knee flexion

Answer

Hip abduction

Answer

Hip rotation

Question 9

Polyarticular onset JRA involves more than how many joints?

Accepted Answer

4

Answer

5

Answer

3

Answer

6

Question 10

Reactionary Hemorrhage occurs due to?

Accepted Answer

Dislodgement of clot

Answer

Infection

Answer

Damage to a blood vessel

Answer

Pressure necrosis

NEET-PG 2015

Anesthesiology

Biochemistry

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Surgery