NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Post dural puncture headache usually presents within ?

12-72 Hrs. ***12-72 Hrs*** - The onset of a **post-dural puncture headache (PDPH)** typically occurs within **12 to 72 hours** after the dural puncture. - This delay is thought to be related to the time it takes for significant **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage** and corresponding intracranial hypotension to develop. *0-6 Hrs* - Headaches presenting within this timeframe are less likely to be true **PDPH** as the typical latency period for significant CSF leakage and its symptomatic effects hasn't usually manifested. - Such early headaches might be due to other causes like **anxiety**, **dehydration**, or mild irritation from the procedure. *6-12 Hrs* - While possible, onset within this timeframe is less common than the 12-72 hour window for **classic PDPH**. - Moderate **CSF leakage** might lead to symptoms in some individuals, but the vast majority present later. *72-96 Hrs* - Although PDPH can persist for days or even weeks, its **onset** is significantly less common in this range. - A headache beginning this late may prompt consideration of other differential diagnoses, though late-onset PDPH is not unheard of.

Q: A 65 year old female presents with a swelling in the neck diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule. The patient is investigated and a scan shows increased uptake of iodine. Serum T3 and T4 are elevated . Most probabe diagnosis is

Solitary Toxic Adenoma. A **solitary toxic adenoma** is a single thyroid nodule that autonomously produces thyroid hormones, leading to **hyperthyroidism**. The increased iodine uptake on scan reflects its hyperfunctional state, and elevated **T3/T4** confirms hyperthyroidism. [2] - The combination of a **solitary nodule**, **increased iodine uptake**, and **elevated thyroid hormone levels** is pathognomonic for a solitary toxic adenoma. [2] *Benign Thyroid Nodule* - A **benign thyroid nodule** without hyperfunction would typically show **normal or decreased iodine uptake** and **normal T3/T4** levels. [2] - While benign, such a nodule alone does not explain the **elevated T3/T4** or **increased iodine uptake**. *Follicular Carcinoma* - **Follicular carcinoma** is a type of thyroid cancer that typically presents as a **cold nodule** (decreased iodine uptake) and is usually **non-functional**, meaning it does not cause hyperthyroidism with elevated T3/T4. [2] - The presence of **increased iodine uptake** and **hyperthyroidism** makes follicular carcinoma highly unlikely. *Toxic Multinodular Goiter* - A **toxic multinodular goiter** involves **multiple nodules**, not a solitary one, that are autonomously functional and cause hyperthyroidism. [1] - While it causes **hyperthyroidism** and **increased iodine uptake**, the key differentiating factor here is the presentation as a **solitary nodule**.

Q: What is the first symptom of Parkinson's disease?

Tremors. ***Tremors*** - A resting **tremor**, often starting unilaterally in a hand or foot, is frequently the **initial motor symptom** of Parkinson's disease [1]. - This tremor is typically **slow**, rhythmic, and may involve a "pill-rolling" motion of the fingers [1]. *Postural instability* - **Postural instability** tends to be a later symptom, emerging as the disease progresses and affecting balance and gait [2]. - It is not usually the **presenting complaint** in the early stages of Parkinson's disease [2]. *Rigidity* - **Rigidity**, characterized by increased muscle tone and resistance to passive movement, often develops after tremors or bradykinesia [1]. - It can manifest as **cogwheel** or **lead-pipe rigidity** and contributes to the stooped posture and reduced arm swing observed in Parkinson's patients [1]. *Bradykinesia* - **Bradykinesia** (slowness of movement) is a core motor symptom, often described as difficulty initiating or continuing movements [1]. - While present early, **tremors** are often the first symptom noticed by the patient or their family, making bradykinesia a close second in sequence [1].

Q: In cobalamin deficiency which is not seen

Microcytic anemia. Microcytic anemia - Cobalamin deficiency typically leads to macrocytic anemia due to impaired DNA synthesis, not microcytic anemia [1]. - Microcytic anemia is usually associated with iron deficiency, thalassemia, or anemia of chronic disease [1]. Long tract signs - Long tract signs are common in cobalamin deficiency due to posterior column and corticospinal tract involvement leading to symptoms like spasticity. - They indicate involvement of pathways that are affected by vitamin B12 deficiency. Loss of proprioception - Loss of proprioception can occur in cobalamin deficiency due to damage to the dorsal columns of the spinal cord. - It is a common clinical finding indicating the involvement of sensory pathways. Rhomberg sign - A positive Rhomberg sign indicates impaired proprioception, which can happen in cobalamin deficiency. - It reflects difficulty maintaining balance, emphasizing sensory dysfunction associated with the deficiency.

Q: Most common cause of secondary PPH is :

Retained placenta. ***Retained placenta*** - Retained placental tissue prevents the uterus from contracting effectively, leading to continued bleeding after delivery. - While it's a common cause of primary PPH as well, it often presents as a secondary PPH when small fragments remain and later detach or become infected. *Uterine atony* - This is the **most common cause of primary PPH**, occurring within 24 hours of delivery due to the uterus failing to contract. - It is less likely to be the primary cause of secondary PPH unless there's a delayed presentation. *Vaginal laceration* - Lacerations of the vagina usually present as **primary PPH**, with bright red blood despite a well-contracted uterus. - While bleeding can persist, it's not the most common cause of delayed, secondary PPH. *Cervical tear* - Cervical tears also typically cause **primary PPH**, characterized by continuous bleeding immediately after delivery. - Similar to vaginal lacerations, while continuous bleeding can occur, it's not the most common etiology for secondary PPH.

Q: In which condition is the Milwaukee Brace primarily used?

Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis. ***Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis*** - The **Milwaukee Brace** is a widely recognized and historically significant orthotic device used primarily for the non-surgical management of **scoliosis**, particularly **adolescent idiopathic scoliosis**. - It works by applying corrective forces to the spine to prevent further curvature progression and often allows for some correction during growth. *Congenital Kyphosis* - **Congenital kyphosis** is a spinal deformity present at birth, often caused by vertebral malformations, which is typically managed surgically, especially if progressive. - While bracing can be attempted for mild, flexible curves, the Milwaukee Brace is not the primary or most effective treatment for its structural nature. *Scheuermann's Disease* - **Scheuermann's disease** is a form of kyphosis where wedging of the vertebrae causes a rigid, exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine. - While bracing can be used to treat Scheuermann's disease, the **Milwaukee brace** is not the brace of choice. A **kyphosis-specific brace** such as a kyphosis-bifocal brace or a molded thoracolumbar sacral orthosis (TLSO) is typically preferred. *Spondylolisthesis* - **Spondylolisthesis** involves the forward slippage of one vertebra over another, often in the lumbar spine. - Management typically involves activity restriction, physical therapy, and sometimes surgical fusion, with bracing aimed at stabilizing the spine rather than correcting a lateral curve, making the Milwaukee Brace unsuitable.

Q: Most common type of TAPVC is -

Supracardiac. ***Supracardiac*** - This is the **most common type** of Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC), accounting for about 50% of cases. - Pulmonary veins drain into a **common vertical vein** that ascends to connect with the **innominate vein** or superior vena cava. *Cardiac* - In this type, the pulmonary veins drain directly into the **right atrium** or a coronary sinus. - It is relatively less common than the supracardiac type. *Infracardiac* - This is the **least common** and most severe type, where the pulmonary veins drain below the diaphragm, typically into the portal vein, ductus venosus, or inferior vena cava. - It is often associated with **pulmonary venous obstruction**, leading to cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension. *Multiple* - While it is possible to have anomalous drainage sites, **multiple sites** draining into different systemic veins are less common than a single primary site for TAPVC. - TAPVC is typically classified into specific anatomic types rather than 'multiple' as a primary category.

Q: Treatment of choice for symptomatic neonatal hypoglycemia is

10% dextrose. ***10% dextrose*** - For **symptomatic neonatal hypoglycemia**, 10% dextrose solution is the **standard initial treatment** with a bolus of 2 mL/kg (200 mg/kg) given IV over 5-10 minutes - This concentration safely and effectively raises blood glucose levels while minimizing the risk of **hyperglycemic rebound** or complications like **osmotic injury** - Followed by continuous infusion to maintain normoglycemia *Dextrose normal saline* - This combination is **not used** for acute hypoglycemia management as the saline component is unnecessary - The glucose concentration would be inadequate for rapid correction of **symptomatic neonatal hypoglycemia** - May lead to excessive fluid administration *5% dextrose* - A **5% dextrose solution** is insufficient to rapidly correct symptomatic neonatal hypoglycemia - Would require much faster infusion rates to deliver adequate glucose, potentially leading to **fluid overload** - May be used for maintenance therapy in asymptomatic cases *25% dextrose* - Too concentrated for routine neonatal use - carries significant risk of **vein sclerosis**, **osmotic injury**, and **rebound hypoglycemia** - Risk of extravasation injury and **hyperglycemia** - Reserved only for extreme cases under close monitoring with careful dilution

Q: A high-riding prostate is indicative of which injury?

Membranous Urethral Injury. ***Membranous Urethral Injury*** - A **high-riding prostate** is a classic sign of **membranous urethral injury**, often resulting from **pelvic fractures**. - The disruption of the **urethra** above the perineal membrane causes the prostate to be displaced superiorly and appear "high." *Extraperitoneal Bladder rupture* - This typically occurs with **pelvic fractures** and involves urine leaking into the **retropubic space**. - While associated with pelvic trauma, it does not directly cause a high-riding prostate; the bladder itself may be ruptured, but the relative position of the prostate is not significantly altered. *Intraperitoneal Bladder Rupture* - This type of rupture usually results from a direct blow to a **full bladder** and involves urine extravasating into the **peritoneal cavity**. - It does not cause a high-riding prostate, as the injury is to the dome of the bladder, not the structures supporting the prostate. *Bulbar Urethral Injury* - A **bulbar urethral injury** usually results from a **straddle injury** and is located in the anterior urethra. - This type of injury does not affect the anatomical position of the prostate, which is posterior and superior to the bulbar urethra.

Question 1

Post dural puncture headache usually presents within ?

Accepted Answer

12-72 Hrs

Answer

0-6 Hrs

Answer

6-12 Hrs

Answer

72-96 Hrs

Question 2

A 65 year old female presents with a swelling in the neck diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule. The patient is investigated and a scan shows increased uptake of iodine. Serum T3 and T4 are elevated . Most probabe diagnosis is

Accepted Answer

Solitary Toxic Adenoma

Answer

Benign Thyroid Nodule

Answer

Follicular Carcinoma

Answer

Toxic Multinodular Goiter

Question 3

What is the first symptom of Parkinson's disease?

Accepted Answer

Tremors

Answer

Rigidity

Answer

Postural instability

Answer

Bradykinesia

Question 4

Which of the following is the MOST characteristic feature of Eaton-Lambert syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Repeated electrical stimulation enhances muscle power in it.

Answer

Neostigmine is not effective for this syndrome.

Answer

It is commonly associated with small cell lung cancer.

Answer

It can affect the ocular muscles.

Question 5

In cobalamin deficiency which is not seen

Accepted Answer

Microcytic anemia

Answer

Loss of proprioception

Answer

Rhomberg sign

Answer

Long tract signs

Question 6

Most common cause of secondary PPH is :

Accepted Answer

Retained placenta

Answer

Cervical tear

Answer

Uterine atony

Answer

Vaginal laceration

Question 7

In which condition is the Milwaukee Brace primarily used?

Accepted Answer

Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis

Answer

Spondylolisthesis

Answer

Scheuermann's Disease

Answer

Congenital Kyphosis

Question 8

Most common type of TAPVC is -

Accepted Answer

Supracardiac

Answer

Cardiac

Answer

Infracardiac

Answer

Multiple

Question 9

Treatment of choice for symptomatic neonatal hypoglycemia is

Accepted Answer

10% dextrose

Answer

Dextrose normal saline

Answer

5% dextrose

Answer

25% dextrose

Question 10

A high-riding prostate is indicative of which injury?

Accepted Answer

Membranous Urethral Injury

Answer

Extraperitoneal Bladder rupture

Answer

Intraperitoneal Bladder Rupture

Answer

Bulbar Urethral Injury

NEET-PG 2015

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Surgery