NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about Bowen's disease is correct?

It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ.. ***It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ.*** - **Bowen's disease** is, by definition, **squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCC in situ)**. - It is characterized by full-thickness epidermal atypia of keratinocytes **without invasion through the basement membrane**. - This statement is **definitional** and represents the fundamental nature of what Bowen's disease is, making it the **best answer** among the options. *Chronic sun exposure is a known risk factor.* - This statement is **medically accurate**. Chronic UV exposure is indeed a well-established risk factor for Bowen's disease. - However, this describes a **risk factor** rather than defining what the condition is. - Other risk factors include **arsenic exposure**, **ionizing radiation**, **immunosuppression**, and **HPV infection** (particularly in anogenital sites). - While true, this is not as fundamental as the definitional statement. *It is more common in fair-skinned individuals.* - This statement is also **medically accurate**. Bowen's disease occurs more frequently in fair-skinned individuals (Fitzpatrick skin types I-II). - Fair skin provides less melanin protection against UV damage, increasing susceptibility to various forms of skin cancer including Bowen's disease. - However, this describes **epidemiology** rather than defining the condition itself. *There is a link between HSV infection and Bowen's disease.* - This statement is **incorrect**. There is **no established association** between Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Bowen's disease. - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)**, particularly high-risk types 16 and 18, is associated with Bowen's disease, especially in anogenital locations. - This represents a common confusion between HSV and HPV.

Q: What are the expected neurological manifestations in a patient with complete absence of the corpus callosum?

Severe developmental delays. ***Severe developmental delays*** - Complete agenesis of the corpus callosum often results in **significant neurological impairments** due to the disruption of interhemispheric communication essential for coordinated brain function. - This typically manifests as **intellectual disability**, **developmental delays** in motor and speech skills, and difficulties with complex cognitive tasks. *Mild cognitive impairment* - While some individuals with partial agenesis or isolated cases might present with mild cognitive issues, **complete absence** usually leads to more profound deficits. - Mild impairment would not fully capture the extensive neurological challenges associated with a total lack of such a critical brain structure. *Seizures* - Seizures can occur in patients with corpus callosum agenesis, but they are not the **most encompassing** or universally expected neurological manifestation. - Seizures are often part of a broader syndrome of developmental abnormalities rather than the primary expected outcome of the agenesis itself. *No significant neurological deficits* - The corpus callosum is vital for **integrating information** between the cerebral hemispheres, affecting a wide range of sensory, motor, and cognitive functions. - Therefore, its complete absence almost invariably leads to notable neurological deficits, making a lack of significant issues highly unlikely.

Q: Contracted pelvis is defined as a condition where the dimensions of the pelvis are reduced, making childbirth difficult. What is the minimum shortening of one or more planes that is considered significant?

1.5 cm. ***1.5 cm*** - A reduction of **1.5 cm or more** in any of the pelvic planes is widely accepted as **clinically significant** to define a contracted pelvis. - Most standard obstetric textbooks (including Williams Obstetrics and DC Dutta) cite **1.5-2 cm** as the threshold for clinically significant pelvic contraction. - This degree of shortening can impede the normal mechanism of labor and increase the risk of **cephalopelvic disproportion**. *1 cm* - While some older references mention 1 cm, the **generally accepted minimum threshold** in modern obstetric practice is **1.5-2 cm**. - A reduction of only 1 cm may not consistently cause significant obstetric complications and falls within the range of normal variation in many cases. *1.25 cm* - This value is **below the standard threshold** of 1.5-2 cm used to define a contracted pelvis in most authoritative obstetric texts. - While it represents some reduction, it does not meet the minimum accepted criterion for clinical significance. *0.5 cm* - A shortening of **0.5 cm** is **insufficient** to classify a pelvis as contracted. - Minor variations within this range fall within the **normal spectrum** and do not typically cause labor complications.

Q: In MRKH syndrome, which of the following structures is typically absent?

Uterus. ***Uterus*** - **Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome** is characterized by congenital aplasia of the **uterus** and upper two-thirds of the vagina. - This is due to abnormal development of the **Müllerian ducts**, which are embryonic structures that form the uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix, and upper vagina. *Breast development* - **Breast development** is typically normal in MRKH syndrome as it is influenced by ovarian hormones, and the **ovaries are usually functional** in these individuals. - Normal breast development indicates that the **estrogen production** from the ovaries is intact. *Pubic hair development* - **Pubic hair development** is also normal in MRKH syndrome, as it is a secondary sexual characteristic driven by **adrenal androgens** and ovarian hormones, which are generally not affected. - The presence of pubic hair indicates **normal adrenal and ovarian androgen production**. *Testes* - **Testes** are male gonads and are therefore not present in individuals with MRKH syndrome, as these patients are **genetically female (46,XX karyotype)**. - The absence of testes is a normal finding in females, and thus not a characteristic feature or absence due to MRKH syndrome itself.

Q: A 45-year-old female with a history of G5P4A0L4 has her last menstrual period (LMP) on August 25, 2014. What is the gestational age in weeks on May 11, 2015?

37 weeks. ***37 weeks*** - Calculating from **LMP (August 25, 2014)** to assessment date **(May 11, 2015)**: Days remaining in August: 6 days (26th-31st), September through April: 242 days, Days in May: 11 days. - **Total: 259 days ÷ 7 = exactly 37 weeks** gestational age using standard **Naegele's rule** calculation method. *32 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early April 2015, which is **too early** given the LMP and assessment date. - It suggests a **5-week shorter** pregnancy duration than the actual interval calculated. *35 weeks* - This option indicates an assessment around the third week of April 2015, which is still **earlier** than the May 11, 2015, date. - It implies a **2-week shorter** gestational period than the correct calculation shows. *40 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early June 2015, **beyond** the May 11, 2015, assessment date. - This gestational age is **too long** for the specified dates and would suggest the patient is at **term** or past her due date.

Q: What is the recommended dose of folic acid for a patient with a history of neural tube defect (NTD) in a previous pregnancy?

4 mg. ***4 mg*** - For women with a prior history of a **neural tube defect (NTD)-affected pregnancy**, a higher dose of **4 mg of folic acid daily** is recommended to significantly reduce the risk of recurrence. - This increased dosage is crucial for achieving adequate maternal folate levels to prevent NTDs, starting at least one month before conception and continuing through the first trimester. *0.5 mg* - This dose is lower than the standard recommendation for women without a history of NTDs and is insufficient for high-risk individuals. - Suboptimal folic acid levels can still lead to a higher risk of NTD recurrence in patients with a history of NTD-affected pregnancies. *1 mg* - While 1 mg is higher than the general recommendation, it is still insufficient for women with a **history of NTD in a previous pregnancy**. - Current guidelines suggest a significantly higher dose for secondary prevention due to altered folate metabolism or higher requirements in these individuals. *2 mg* - This dose is also lower than the **established recommendation for high-risk women** who have had a previous NTD-affected pregnancy. - It does not provide the optimal level of protection required to reduce the risk of recurrence effectively.

Q: Lift off test is done to assess the function of:

Subscapularis muscle function. ***Subscapularis muscle function*** - The **Lift-off test**, or Gerber's Lift-off test, specifically assesses the integrity and strength of the **subscapularis muscle** by evaluating its internal rotation and extension strength. - A positive test occurs when the patient is unable to lift their hand off their back, indicating a **subscapularis tear or weakness**. *Supraspinatus muscle function* - The **supraspinatus muscle** is primarily tested with the **empty can test** or full can test, which assess its role in shoulder abduction. - These tests evaluate for **impingement** or **tears** of the supraspinatus tendon. *Infraspinatus muscle function* - The **infraspinatus muscle** is mainly responsible for external rotation and is assessed using tests like the **resisted external rotation test** with the arm at the side. - This test is used to detect **infraspinatus tears** or weakness. *Teres Minor muscle function* - The **teres minor muscle** also contributes to external rotation of the shoulder, often tested in conjunction with the infraspinatus. - Its function can be isolated by testing resisted **external rotation** in 90 degrees of abduction and external rotation.

Q: Suxamethonium primarily acts on which type of receptors?

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. ***Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors*** - **Suxamethonium** is a depolarizing muscle relaxant that acts as an **agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors** at the neuromuscular junction. - This initial activation leads to muscle fasciculations followed by prolonged depolarization, causing **flaccid paralysis**. *Potassium channels* - While some drugs may affect potassium channels to alter neuronal excitability, suxamethonium's primary mechanism of action is not on these channels. - Blocking potassium channels is characteristic of drugs like **certain antiarrhythmics** or **sulfonylureas**. *Calcium channels* - **Calcium channels** play a role in muscle contraction, but they are not the primary target of suxamethonium. - Drugs like **dihydropyridines** (e.g., nifedipine) target calcium channels for their antihypertensive effects. *Chloride channels* - Chloride channels are involved in maintaining resting membrane potential and inhibitory neurotransmission. - Drugs such as **benzodiazepines** indirectly enhance GABA-mediated chloride influx, which is distinct from suxamethonium's action.

Q: In Alzheimer's disease (AD), which of the following is NOT commonly seen in early stages?

Acalculia. ***Acalculia*** - **Acalculia**, the inability to perform mathematical calculations, is a **late-stage feature** of Alzheimer's disease that requires extensive **parietal lobe atrophy**. - Among all the cognitive impairments listed, acalculia appears **latest in the disease progression**, making it the feature **NOT commonly seen in early stages**. *Apraxia* - **Apraxia** (inability to perform learned motor tasks) is a **middle-stage feature** that develops as **premotor and parietal cortices** become involved. - While not an early feature, it appears **earlier than acalculia** in the disease course, typically in moderate stages. *Aphasia* - **Mild anomia** (word-finding difficulty) and **naming problems** are **common early symptoms** of Alzheimer's disease. - This reflects early involvement of **temporal-parietal language areas** and is often one of the first cognitive domains affected after memory. *Agnosia* - **Agnosia** (inability to recognize objects, faces, or sounds) is a **middle-stage feature** that appears as **cortical atrophy progresses**. - While not truly early, it typically develops **before acalculia** as the disease advances from mild to moderate stages.

Q: Under what guidelines is treatment started for a patient presenting with appendicular mass on a CT scan?

Ochsner Sherren Regimen. ***Ochsner Sherren Regimen*** - The **Ochsner Sherren regimen** is a conservative management approach specifically used for patients presenting with an **appendicular mass** (a palpable mass formed by the inflamed appendix, omentum, and small bowel loops). - This regimen involves **nil by mouth**, **intravenous fluids**, **antibiotics**, and **analgesia**, with close observation to allow the inflammation to subside before potential interval appendectomy. *Conservative management and discharge* - While the Ochsner Sherren regimen is a form of conservative management, simply stating "conservative management and discharge" is incomplete and potentially dangerous for a patient with an **appendicular mass**. - **Discharge** is not appropriate without a period of observation and specific medical interventions like antibiotics, as there's a risk of abscess formation or perforation. *Kocher's Regimen* - **Kocher's regimen** is not a recognized treatment protocol for an appendicular mass. - The term "Kocher" is more commonly associated with a **surgical incision** (Kocher incision for cholecystectomy) or a **maneuver** (Kocher maneuver for duodenal mobilization). *Immediate Laparotomy* - **Immediate laparotomy** is generally contraindicated in the presence of a well-formed **appendicular mass**. - Operating on a friable, inflamed mass can disrupt the natural containment, leading to widespread peritonitis and increased morbidity. The Ochsner Sherren regimen aims to cool down the inflammation first.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about Bowen's disease is correct?

Accepted Answer

It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ.

Answer

Chronic sun exposure is a known risk factor.

Answer

It is more common in fair-skinned individuals.

Answer

There is a link between HSV infection and Bowen's disease.

Question 2

What are the expected neurological manifestations in a patient with complete absence of the corpus callosum?

Accepted Answer

Severe developmental delays

Answer

Mild cognitive impairment

Answer

Seizures

Answer

No significant neurological deficits

Question 3

Contracted pelvis is defined as a condition where the dimensions of the pelvis are reduced, making childbirth difficult. What is the minimum shortening of one or more planes that is considered significant?

Accepted Answer

1.5 cm

Answer

0.5 cm

Answer

1.25 cm

Answer

1 cm

Question 4

In MRKH syndrome, which of the following structures is typically absent?

Accepted Answer

Uterus

Answer

Testes

Answer

Breast development

Answer

Pubic hair development

Question 5

A 45-year-old female with a history of G5P4A0L4 has her last menstrual period (LMP) on August 25, 2014. What is the gestational age in weeks on May 11, 2015?

Accepted Answer

37 weeks

Answer

32 weeks

Answer

35 weeks

Answer

40 weeks

Question 6

What is the recommended dose of folic acid for a patient with a history of neural tube defect (NTD) in a previous pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

4 mg

Answer

0.5 mg

Answer

1 mg

Answer

2 mg

Question 7

Lift off test is done to assess the function of:

Accepted Answer

Subscapularis muscle function

Answer

Supraspinatus muscle function

Answer

Infraspinatus muscle function

Answer

Teres Minor muscle function

Question 8

Suxamethonium primarily acts on which type of receptors?

Accepted Answer

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

Answer

Potassium channels

Answer

Calcium channels

Answer

Chloride channels

Question 9

In Alzheimer's disease (AD), which of the following is NOT commonly seen in early stages?

Accepted Answer

Acalculia

Answer

Apraxia

Answer

Aphasia

Answer

Agnosia

Question 10

Under what guidelines is treatment started for a patient presenting with appendicular mass on a CT scan?

Accepted Answer

Ochsner Sherren Regimen

Answer

Conservative management and discharge

Answer

Kocher's Regimen

Answer

Immediate Laparotomy

NEET-PG 2015

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pharmacology

Psychiatry

Surgery