Dental
1 questionsIn which of the following causes of oral ulcers are auto-antibodies not seen?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: In which of the following causes of oral ulcers are auto-antibodies not seen?
- A. Behcet disease (Correct Answer)
- B. SLE
- C. Pemphigus
- D. Celiac disease
Explanation: ***Behcet disease*** - Behcet disease is characterized by **recurrent oral and genital ulcers**, along with **eye lesions**, but it does not involve autoantibody formation. - The underlying mechanism is believed to be **immune dysregulation** rather than autoimmunity, making it distinctive. *Celiac disease* - In Celiac disease, **anti-tissue transglutaminase** antibodies are present, which are involved in the body's response to gluten. - Oral ulcers associated with Celiac are often related to nutrient deficiencies, particularly **iron and folate**. *SLE* - Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is marked by various autoantibodies, including **antinuclear antibodies (ANA)** [1]. - Oral ulcers can occur in SLE, and these are a manifestation of its **autoimmune nature** [1]. *Pemphigus* - Pemphigus is characterized by the presence of **autoantibodies** against desmogleins, leading to **blistering** and ulcer formation. - Oral ulcers are common in this condition due to the **disruption of mucosal integrity** caused by the autoimmune response. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, p. 226.
Internal Medicine
5 questionsWhich of the following conditions is least likely to cause multiple painful ulcers on the tongue?
Which fluid is ideally given for a patient experiencing dehydration?
What is the appropriate fluid management in the case of an intracerebral hemorrhage?
Which of the following statements about drug-induced SLE is NOT true?
A man working in a hot environment and consuming large amounts of water without replacing salts is likely to develop -
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause multiple painful ulcers on the tongue?
- A. TB
- B. Herpes
- C. Behcet disease
- D. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sarcoidosis*** - While sarcoidosis can affect any organ, **oral involvement is rare** and typically presents as **nodules, plaques, or generalized swelling**, not usually multiple painful ulcers on the tongue. - The lesions, when they occur, are often **painless** and appear as submucosal nodules, red patches, or diffuse swelling. *TB* - Oral tuberculosis can present as **multiple painful ulcers** on the tongue, often with a **granulomatous appearance** mimicking squamous cell carcinoma. - These ulcers are typically **irregular, undermined, and persistent**, often associated with pulmonary TB. *Herpes* - **Herpes simplex virus (HSV)** infection, particularly primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, commonly causes **multiple painful ulcers** on the tongue, gums, and other oral mucosa. - These ulcers begin as vesicles that **rupture to form painful erosions** and are a classic presentation of oral herpes. *Behcet disease* - **Oral aphthous ulcers** are a hallmark feature of Behcet disease, commonly presenting as **multiple, recurrent, painful ulcers** on the tongue and other oral mucosal surfaces. - These ulcers are clinically indistinguishable from common aphthous stomatitis but are more frequent and often associated with genital ulcers, skin lesions, and ocular inflammation.
Question 1202: Which fluid is ideally given for a patient experiencing dehydration?
- A. Plasma
- B. Normal Saline (Correct Answer)
- C. Blood
- D. 5% dextrose
Explanation: ***Normal Saline*** - **Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)** is an **isotonic solution** that effectively increases **extracellular fluid volume**, making it ideal for treating **dehydration** and hypovolemia [1]. - It closely mimics the **osmolality of plasma** and stays predominantly in the intravascular space, helping to restore circulating volume [1]. *Plasma* - **Plasma** is primarily used for **coagulation factor deficiencies** or volume expansion in cases of severe **hypoproteinemia**, not routine dehydration. - It contains **proteins and clotting factors** that are not typically needed for simple dehydration and carries risks of **allergic reactions and transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)**. *Blood* - **Blood transfusions** are indicated for patients with **significant anemia** or **acute blood loss**, not for generalized dehydration. - Using blood for dehydration would be inappropriate due to risks such as **transfusion reactions**, **infections**, and **iron overload**. *5% dextrose* - **5% dextrose in water (D5W)** is an **isotonic solution initially**, but once the dextrose is metabolized, it becomes **hypotonic**, causing free water to shift into the cells [1]. - While it provides some free water, it is not ideal for primary rehydration in cases of significant volume depletion due to its lack of electrolytes and potential for causing **hyponatremia** if given in large quantities [1].
Question 1203: What is the appropriate fluid management in the case of an intracerebral hemorrhage?
- A. Normal saline (Correct Answer)
- B. Colloids
- C. Blood transfusion
- D. Hypertonic fluids
Explanation: **Normal saline** - **Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)** is the preferred fluid for volume maintenance in patients with **intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)** as it is an isotonic crystalloid. - It helps maintain an adequate **cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)** and avoids hypotonic effects that could worsen cerebral edema. *Colloids* - **Colloids** are generally avoided in ICH as they can potentially **increase intracranial pressure (ICP)** due to their osmotic effects within the damaged blood-brain barrier. - They are also associated with **increased risk of cerebral edema** and poor neurological outcomes in stroke patients. *Blood transfusion* - **Blood transfusions** are indicated only in cases of significant **anemia** (typically hemoglobin < 7-8 g/dL) or active bleeding where oxygen delivery to the brain is compromised. - Routine blood transfusion without clear indication is not part of standard fluid management for ICH and carries risks. *Hypertonic fluids* - **Hypertonic saline (e.g., 3% NaCl)** or **mannitol** are used specifically for the acute management of **elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)**, not for routine fluid maintenance. - While they improve cerebral perfusion by reducing brain edema, their continuous use as maintenance fluid can lead to severe electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
Question 1204: Which of the following statements about drug-induced SLE is NOT true?
- A. Female: Male ratio=1:9 (Correct Answer)
- B. CNS involvement not common
- C. Renal involvement not common
- D. Anti-histone antibodies are negative
Explanation: ***Female: Male ratio=1:9*** - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE) typically has no significant **gender predilection**, unlike idiopathic SLE which has a marked female predominance (9:1 female: male ratio) [1]. - This statement is incorrect because the male:female ratio is closer to 1:1, or even male predominance, making the given ratio of 1:9 (female:male) false. *Anti-histone antibodies are negative* - **Anti-histone antibodies** are positive in 95% of patients with drug-induced lupus, making this statement incorrect. - The presence of anti-histone antibodies is a hallmark diagnostic feature of drug-induced lupus. *CNS involvement not common* - **Central nervous system (CNS) manifestations** are indeed uncommon in drug-induced lupus erythematosus. - This statement accurately reflects a key differentiating feature from idiopathic systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), where CNS involvement can be significant [1]. *Renal involvement not common* - **Renal involvement** is rare in drug-induced lupus erythematosus. - This statement is true and helps distinguish drug-induced lupus from idiopathic SLE, where renal disease (lupus nephritis) is a frequent and serious complication [1].
Question 1205: A man working in a hot environment and consuming large amounts of water without replacing salts is likely to develop -
- A. Heat hyperpyrexia
- B. Heat cramps (Correct Answer)
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat encephalopathy
Explanation: ***Heat cramps*** - **Heat cramps** are painful, involuntary muscle spasms that occur during or after strenuous activity in a hot environment, especially when there is excessive sweating and **inadequate salt replacement**. - The consumption of **large amounts of water** without replacing electrolytes further dilutes the remaining electrolytes, exacerbating the problem. *Heat hyperpyrexia* - **Heat hyperpyrexia** is characterized by a very high core body temperature (typically >106°F or 41.1°C) without central nervous system dysfunction [1]. - While it involves extreme heat exposure, the primary problem described (muscle cramps due to fluid and **electrolyte imbalance**) is not hyperpyrexia itself but a milder heat illness. *Heat stroke* - **Heat stroke** is a severe, life-threatening condition involving a dangerously elevated body temperature (>104°F or 40°C) along with **central nervous system dysfunction** (e.g., altered mental status, seizures) [1], [2]. - Although strenuous activity and heat exposure contribute, the predominant symptoms described are muscle cramps, not the systemic collapse characteristic of heat stroke. *Heat encephalopathy* - **Heat encephalopathy** refers to the neurological manifestations of severe heat illness, particularly **heat stroke**, involving altered mental status, confusion, and possibly seizures. - While heat cramps are a form of heat illness, they primarily involve muscle symptoms and do not typically include direct brain dysfunction as the primary feature.
Pathology
2 questionsWhich of the following statements about cross-matching of blood is false?
What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: Which of the following statements about cross-matching of blood is false?
- A. Mandatory in all cases except emergency
- B. Involves visible agglutination
- C. Recipient serum is tested against donor packed cells
- D. Donor serum is tested against recipient packed cells (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Donor serum is tested against recipient packed cells*** - This statement is **FALSE** and describes a **minor crossmatch**, which is rarely performed in modern transfusion practice. - The minor crossmatch tests donor antibodies against recipient cells, but this is not standard practice because donor plasma is significantly diluted during transfusion, making clinically significant reactions rare. - Modern blood banking focuses on the **major crossmatch** as the critical safety measure. *Recipient serum is tested against donor packed cells* - This statement is **TRUE** and accurately describes the **major crossmatch**, which is the standard and most critical pre-transfusion compatibility test. - The major crossmatch detects antibodies in the recipient's serum that could react with donor red blood cell antigens, preventing potentially fatal hemolytic transfusion reactions. *Mandatory in all cases except emergency* - This statement is **TRUE**. Crossmatching is mandatory for safe transfusion practice. - In life-threatening emergencies where delay could be fatal, uncrossmatched O-negative (universal donor) blood may be given, but this is a rare exception. *Involves visible agglutination* - This statement is **TRUE**. A positive crossmatch indicating incompatibility is identified by **visible agglutination** or **hemolysis**. - These visible reactions occur when recipient antibodies bind to donor red blood cell antigens, signaling that transfusion would cause a severe reaction.
Question 1202: What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?
- A. 0
- B. 1 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2
- D. 3
Explanation: ***1*** - **Klinefelter's syndrome** typically has a 47,XXY karyotype, meaning there are two X chromosomes [1]. - The number of Barr bodies is calculated as **N-1**, where N is the total number of X chromosomes. In this case, 2-1 = **1 Barr body** [1]. - This follows the principle that one X chromosome remains active while additional X chromosomes are inactivated [1]. *0* - **No Barr bodies** are found in individuals with a normal male karyotype (46,XY) or in Turner syndrome (45,XO), neither of which describes Klinefelter's syndrome [1]. - The presence of at least one Barr body indicates the presence of at least two X chromosomes. *2* - **Two Barr bodies** would be indicative of a karyotype with three X chromosomes (e.g., 47,XXX syndrome or Triple X syndrome), which is not Klinefelter's syndrome. - This calculation follows the N-1 rule: 3 X chromosomes - 1 = 2 Barr bodies. *3* - **Three Barr bodies** would correspond to a karyotype with four X chromosomes (e.g., 48,XXXX), which is an even rarer sex chromosome aneuploidy not associated with Klinefelter's syndrome. - The N-1 rule applies: 4 X chromosomes - 1 = 3 Barr bodies. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 173-174.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following methods can reduce flushing caused by niacin?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: Which of the following methods can reduce flushing caused by niacin?
- A. All of the options (Correct Answer)
- B. Tachyphylaxis
- C. Laropiprant
- D. Premedication with aspirin
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **All three methods** (tachyphylaxis, laropiprant, and premedication with aspirin) are effective strategies for reducing niacin-induced flushing. - This demonstrates that multiple pharmacological and physiological approaches can mitigate this common side effect of niacin therapy. **Why each method works:** **Tachyphylaxis:** - Refers to the rapid decrease in response to a drug after repeated administration - With continued niacin use, tolerance develops and flushing intensity decreases over time - This is a natural adaptive response, though not an immediate solution for initial flushing episodes **Laropiprant:** - A selective antagonist of the **prostaglandin D2 receptor 1 (DP1)** - Specifically developed to reduce niacin-induced flushing by blocking prostaglandin D2-mediated vasodilation - Was marketed in combination with niacin (though later withdrawn due to other safety concerns) **Premedication with aspirin:** - **Aspirin** or other NSAIDs taken approximately 30 minutes before niacin administration - Reduces flushing by inhibiting **prostaglandin synthesis**, particularly prostaglandin D2 - Prostaglandins are key mediators of the cutaneous vasodilation that causes flushing
Surgery
1 questionsWhat is the best management for a human bite?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: What is the best management for a human bite?
- A. Ampicillin plus sulbactam (Correct Answer)
- B. Clindamycin plus TMP-SMX
- C. Fluoroquinolone
- D. Doxycycline
Explanation: ***Ampicillin plus sulbactam*** - This combination is effective against the common **aerobic and anaerobic bacteria** found in human bite wounds, including **Eikenella corrodens** and oral streptococci. - The sulbactam component provides **beta-lactamase inhibition**, which is crucial as many oral bacteria produce these enzymes, rendering ampicillin alone ineffective. *Clindamycin plus TMP-SMX* - While clindamycin covers many anaerobes, it has **poor activity against Eikenella corrodens**, a key pathogen in human bites. - **TMP-SMX (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole)** also lacks reliable coverage against many oral anaerobes and Eikenella. *Fluoroquinolone* - **Fluoroquinolones** generally have good Gram-negative coverage but often possess **limited activity against oral anaerobes and streptococci** relevant to human bites. - There is a **growing concern for resistance** with fluoroquinolone monotherapy in these types of infections. *Doxycycline* - Doxycycline has a broad spectrum but is **not the first-line choice for human bites** due to inconsistent activity against common oral anaerobes and Eikenella corrodens. - It may be considered in specific cases, but **empiric coverage needs to be broader** for initial management of these **polymicrobial infections**.