NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Most common flexural site for atopic dermatitis -

Elbow crease. ***Elbow crease*** - The **antecubital fossa** (elbow crease) and **popliteal fossa** (knee crease) are the **two most characteristic flexural sites** for atopic dermatitis in children and adults. - Both sites are **equally common** and represent classic presentations of flexural eczema. - The constant rubbing, friction, and moisture retention in these areas contribute to skin irritation and the characteristic **lichenification** seen in atopic dermatitis. - In the context of this question asking for "most common," both antecubital and popliteal fossae are considered the primary flexural sites. *Popliteal fossa* - The **popliteal fossa** (behind the knee) is equally as common as the antecubital fossa and is a classic flexural site for atopic dermatitis. - It shares the same pathophysiological mechanisms and clinical presentation as the elbow crease. - Both antecubital and popliteal fossae are mentioned together in standard dermatology texts as the hallmark flexural sites. *Scalp* - While the scalp can be affected by atopic dermatitis, especially in **infants** (as **seborrheic dermatitis** or cradle cap), it is **not a flexural site**. - Scalp involvement typically presents as scaling and erythema, rather than the lichenified plaques characteristic of flexural eczema. *Trunk* - The trunk can be affected by atopic dermatitis with diffuse patches or widespread xerosis, but it is **not a flexural site**. - Flexural areas (skin folds) are the characteristic locations for atopic dermatitis in the flexural pattern.

Q: Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is:

Chlamydia. ***Chlamydia*** - **Chlamydia trachomatis** is a commonly identified pathogen causing **genitourinary infections** that can trigger reactive arthritis [1]. - The organism itself is not present in the joint, but its antigens trigger an immune response leading to sterile arthritis [1]. *Staphylococcus* - **Staphylococcus aureus** is a common cause of septic arthritis, which involves direct bacterial invasion of the joint. - Reactive arthritis is a **sterile arthritis** triggered by an infection elsewhere, not directly caused by staphylococcal joint infection. *Shigella* - While **Shigella** is a known enteric pathogen that can trigger reactive arthritis, it is less commonly associated with the condition globally compared to Chlamydia [1]. - Reactive arthritis often follows episodes of **dysentery** caused by Shigella species [1]. *Yersinia* - **Yersinia enterocolitica** is another enteric bacterium that can induce reactive arthritis, typically after **gastrointestinal infections**. - Its prevalence as a trigger for reactive arthritis is generally lower than that of Chlamydia.

Q: What is the most common type of conjoint twin?

Thoracopagus. ***Thoracopagus*** - This type of conjoint twin, fused at the **thorax** and often sharing a heart and liver, is the **most common** variety, accounting for approximately **40%** of all cases. - The shared organs and complex anatomy often pose significant challenges for separation and survival. *Omphalopagus* - These twins are joined at the **abdomen** and typically share a liver, gastrointestinal tract, or other abdominal organs. - This is the second most common type, representing approximately **30-35%** of conjoint twins. *Craniopagus* - This rare form involves fusion at the **head**, often sharing parts of the skull, dura mater, or even brain tissue. - Due to the intricate neurological connections, craniopagus twins present exceptionally complex medical and ethical challenges, accounting for only **2-6%** of cases. *Rachipagus* - These twins are fused dorsally along the **spine** and typically share portions of the vertebral column and spinal cord. - This is an extremely rare type of conjoint twinning, representing less than **2%** of cases.

Q: Cardiac output in pregnancy shows significant increase from which week of gestation

15 weeks. ***15 weeks*** - Cardiac output shows a **significant and clinically measurable increase around 10-15 weeks of gestation**, which continues to rise, peaking between **20-28 weeks**. - This rise is primarily due to an increase in both **stroke volume** (increased by 25-30%) and **heart rate** (increased by 10-15 bpm) to meet the metabolic demands of the growing fetus and placenta. - By 15 weeks, cardiac output has typically increased by approximately **20-30% above pre-pregnancy levels**. *5 weeks* - While cardiac output does begin to rise very early in pregnancy (as early as 5-8 weeks), the increase at this stage is **subtle and not yet significant**. - At 5 weeks, the **placental circulation is still in early development**, and the hemodynamic changes are just beginning. - The question asks about **significant increase**, which is not yet established at 5 weeks. *25 weeks* - By 25 weeks, cardiac output has already completed its major rise and is at or near its **peak levels** (40-50% above baseline). - The **significant increase had already occurred** much earlier, around 10-15 weeks. - This timing represents the plateau phase rather than the initial significant increase. *35 weeks* - At 35 weeks, cardiac output remains elevated at near-peak levels but the **major increase happened much earlier** in pregnancy. - By this gestational age, the cardiovascular system has been adapted for months. - There may be minor positional variations (e.g., aortocaval compression in supine position) but no new significant increase occurs.

Q: Most common complication of dermoid cyst is -

Torsion. ***Torsion*** - Ovarian dermoid cysts (mature cystic teratomas) are prone to **torsion** due to their common unilateral, round, and easily mobile nature. - Torsion results from the **twisting of the ovarian pedicle**, which can lead to exquisite pain and potential **ischemic necrosis** of the ovary. - **Most common complication** occurring in **15-20% of dermoid cysts**. *Cyst Rupture* - While rupture can occur, it is a **less common complication** than torsion, occurring in **1-4% of cases**. - Rupture can release sebaceous material and hair into the peritoneal cavity, leading to **chemical peritonitis**. *Malignant degeneration* - **Malignant transformation** within a dermoid cyst is rare, occurring in **less than 1-2% of cases**, making it much less common than torsion. - The most common type of malignancy arising from a dermoid cyst is **squamous cell carcinoma**. *Infection* - **Secondary infection** of dermoid cysts is a rare complication. - Much less common than torsion, and typically presents with fever, pain, and signs of inflammation.

Q: Which is false about stress urinary incontinence?

More common in men. ***More common in men*** - **Stress urinary incontinence (SUI)** is significantly more prevalent in **women** due to anatomical differences and factors like childbirth. - While it can occur in men, especially after prostate surgery, the overall incidence is higher in females. *It is due to weakening of pelvic floor muscles* - Weakening of the **pelvic floor muscles** is a primary cause of SUI, leading to insufficient support for the urethra and bladder neck. - This weakness compromises the ability to maintain urethral closure pressure during activity. *Prostate surgery may be a cause* - **Radical prostatectomy** for prostate cancer is a common cause of SUI in men, as it can damage the urethral sphincter. - Damage to the internal or external urethral sphincter during surgery impairs the ability to control urine flow. *It occurs during increased abdominal pressure* - SUI characteristically involves involuntary urine leakage during activities that increase **intra-abdominal pressure**, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. - This increased pressure overcomes the weakened urethral resistance, leading to urine loss.

Q: What condition is characterized by a waddling gait?

Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip. ***Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip*** - A **waddling gait**, also known as a **Trendelenburg gait**, occurs due to weakness of the hip abductor muscles (gluteus medius and minimus) on both sides. - In bilateral congenital dysplasia of the hip, the **femoral heads are poorly seated** or dislocated, leading to ineffective abductor function and the characteristic gait. *Coxa valga* - This condition involves an **increased angle** between the femoral neck and shaft, which can alter biomechanics but does not typically cause a waddling gait in isolation. - While it can be associated with other hip pathologies, **coxa valga itself is not the primary cause** of a waddling gait. *CTEV* - **CTEV (Congenital Talipes Equinovarus)**, or **clubfoot**, is a deformity of the foot and ankle, not the hip. - It affects the patient's ability to walk normally, but results in a different type of gait abnormality, typically involving limping or walking on the outer edge of the foot, **not a waddling gait**. *Muscular dystrophy* - While many forms of muscular dystrophy can lead to a waddling gait due to **proximal muscle weakness**, it is a broad category of genetic disorders. - Without further context or specific type of muscular dystrophy, **bilateral congenital hip dysplasia is a more direct and specific cause** for the symptom described.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a recognized cause of neonatal bradycardia?

BCG Vaccine. ***BCG Vaccine*** - The **BCG vaccine** (Bacille Calmette-Guérin) is used to prevent tuberculosis and is not a known cause of **neonatal bradycardia**. - While it can cause local reactions or, rarely, disseminated disease in immunocompromised infants, it does not directly affect heart rate. *Hypoxia* - **Hypoxia** is a common and critical cause of **neonatal bradycardia**, as the heart attempts to conserve energy and oxygen in response to insufficient oxygen supply. - Severe or prolonged hypoxia can lead to **myocardial depression** and further compromise cardiac function. *Hypothermia* - **Hypothermia** (low body temperature) can significantly depress the **central nervous system** and **metabolic rate** in neonates. - This physiological response often leads to a decreased heart rate, resulting in **bradycardia**. *Head injury* - **Head injury** in neonates, especially severe forms, can increase **intracranial pressure** and stimulate the **vagal nerve**. - **Vagal stimulation** can lead to a decrease in heart rate, manifesting as **bradycardia**.

Q: All of the following statements about Gastrointestinal carcinoid tumors are true, Except:

Rectum is spared. ***Rectum is spared*** - This statement is **incorrect**; carcinoid tumors can occur in the rectum, which is often **affected** by such tumors. - It is more accurate to say that carcinoid tumors arise in various gastrointestinal locations, including the **rectum** itself. *Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid* - This statement is **true**; small intestine and appendix are indeed significant sites for carcinoid tumors, together accounting for nearly **60% of cases**. - These locations are particularly prominent due to the number of neuroendocrine cells found in these areas of the **gastrointestinal tract** [1][2]. *5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is >60%* - This statement is **true**, as many patients with localized carcinoid tumors exhibit a **5-year survival rate** greater than 60%. - Survival rates vary depending on the tumor's stage and location, but overall, they tend to have a favorable prognosis when diagnosed early. *Appendicial carcinoids are more common in females than males* - This statement is **true**; studies indicate that appendiceal carcinoids are indeed more frequently diagnosed in **females** compared to males [2]. - This differentiation is one of the notable epidemiological trends observed with carcinoid tumors.

Q: A 25 year old male is receiving conservative management for an appendicular mass since 3 days now presents with a rising pulse rate, tachycardia and fever. The mode of management must be -

Proceed to laparotomy and appendicectomy. ***Proceed to laparotomy and appendicectomy*** - A **rising pulse rate, tachycardia, and fever** indicate **worsening sepsis** or **perforation** of the appendicular mass, necessitating urgent surgical intervention. - Continuing conservative management in the face of these signs carries a high risk of **morbidity and mortality** from peritonitis or widespread sepsis. *Continue Ochsner Sherren regimen with close monitoring* - The Ochsner Sherren regimen is a **conservative approach** for a stable appendicular mass, which is no longer the case with signs of deterioration. - **Clinical worsening** (tachycardia, rising fever, increased pulse) signifies failure of conservative management and requires a shift to surgical intervention. *Continue conservative management* - Continuing conservative management despite **signs of deterioration** (rising pulse, tachycardia, fever) would lead to further progression of the disease and potential life-threatening complications. - These symptoms suggest that the infection is **not contained** and is likely spreading, indicating the need for immediate surgical treatment. *Intravenous antibiotics* - While intravenous antibiotics are part of the initial conservative management, they are **insufficient** alone for an appendicular mass showing signs of deterioration. - The worsening clinical picture suggests a **failed antibiotic response** or a more severe underlying issue (e.g., abscess rupture) that requires surgical drainage or removal.

Question 1

Most common flexural site for atopic dermatitis -

Accepted Answer

Elbow crease

Answer

Popliteal fossa

Answer

Scalp

Answer

Trunk

Question 2

Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is:

Accepted Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Staphylococcus

Answer

Shigella

Answer

Yersinia

Question 3

What is the most common type of conjoint twin?

Accepted Answer

Thoracopagus

Answer

Omphalopagus

Answer

Craniopagus

Answer

Rachipagus

Question 4

Cardiac output in pregnancy shows significant increase from which week of gestation

Accepted Answer

15 weeks

Answer

25 weeks

Answer

35 weeks

Answer

5 weeks

Question 5

Most common complication of dermoid cyst is -

Accepted Answer

Torsion

Answer

Cyst Rupture

Answer

Malignant degeneration

Answer

Infection

Question 6

Which is false about stress urinary incontinence?

Accepted Answer

More common in men

Answer

It is due to weakening of pelvic floor muscles

Answer

Prostate surgery may be a cause

Answer

It occurs during increased abdominal pressure

Question 7

What condition is characterized by a waddling gait?

Accepted Answer

Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip

Answer

Coxa valga

Answer

CTEV

Answer

Muscular dystrophy

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a recognized cause of neonatal bradycardia?

Accepted Answer

BCG Vaccine

Answer

Hypothermia

Answer

Head injury

Answer

Hypoxia

Question 9

All of the following statements about Gastrointestinal carcinoid tumors are true, Except:

Accepted Answer

Rectum is spared

Answer

Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid

Answer

Appendicial carcinoids are more common in females than males

Answer

5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is >60%

Question 10

A 25 year old male is receiving conservative management for an appendicular mass since 3 days now presents with a rising pulse rate, tachycardia and fever. The mode of management must be -

Accepted Answer

Proceed to laparotomy and appendicectomy

Answer

Intravenous antibiotics

Answer

Continue Ochsner Sherren regimen with close monitoring

Answer

Continue conservative management

NEET-PG 2015

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Surgery