NEET-PG 2015 - Microbiology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not a recognized transmission route for amoebiasis?

Vector transmission. ***Vector transmission*** - Amoebiasis, caused by *Entamoeba histolytica*, is primarily an **intestinal infection** transmitted through the **fecal-oral route**. - Its life cycle **does not involve any arthropod vector** (e.g., mosquito, tick, fly) for transmission. - This is the **only route among the options that is definitively NOT recognized** for amoebiasis transmission. *Sexual transmission* - Amoebiasis **can be transmitted** through **oral-anal sexual contact**, particularly documented in men who have sex with men (MSM). - This represents an **indirect fecal-oral transmission** route and is a recognized mode of spread. *Blood and blood products* - While *E. histolytica* can disseminate to cause **amoebic liver abscesses** and rarely systemic disease, transmission via blood transfusion is **extremely rare and not well-documented**. - However, theoretically possible in cases of parasitemia during invasive disease. - Unlike vector transmission, this cannot be definitively ruled out as "not recognized." *Fecal-oral route* - This is the **primary and most important transmission route** for amoebiasis. - Infection occurs through ingestion of **cysts** from contaminated food, water, or through direct person-to-person contact with poor hand hygiene.

Q: To which part of an antigen do monoclonal antibodies specifically bind?

Specific epitope on the antigen. ***Specific epitope on the antigen*** - Monoclonal antibodies are designed to recognize and bind to a **unique, specific region** on an antigen, known as an **epitope**. - This high specificity is crucial for their clinical applications, such as targeted therapies and diagnostic tests. *Both the epitope and the paratope* - The **epitope** is the part of the antigen, while the **paratope** is the part of the antibody that binds to the epitope. - An antibody binds to an epitope, not to both itself and its own binding site. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there is a correct answer among the choices provided, which accurately describes the binding site of monoclonal antibodies. *Part of the antibody that binds to the epitope* - This describes the **paratope**, which is the antigen-binding site on the antibody, not the part of the antigen to which the antibody binds. - The question specifically asks about the part of the antigen.

Q: Which of the following statements about the Widal test is true?

The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.. ***Correct: The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.*** - The Widal test uses **O (somatic) antigens from S. Typhi** to detect anti-O antibodies - It also uses **H (flagellar) antigens from S. Typhi** to detect anti-H antibodies - Additionally, antigens from **S. Paratyphi A and B** are included for comprehensive detection of enteric fever - The statement is correct that O antigen from S. typhi is used (along with antigens from other organisms) *Incorrect: The H-antigen is the most immunogenic.* - The **O antigen** is generally considered more immunogenic than the H antigen in enteric fever - Anti-O antibodies appear earlier and are more specific for acute infection - However, O antibodies disappear faster after recovery *Incorrect: Felix tubes are not used in the Widal test.* - **Dreyer's tubes** (also known as Felix tubes) are traditionally used in the Widal test - These special tubes allow for quantitative antibody titration - They enable observation of agglutination patterns at different serum dilutions *Incorrect: Anti-O antibody persists longer than anti-H antibody.* - This is **backwards** - Anti-H antibodies actually persist longer (can last for years) - **Anti-O antibodies** appear later and disappear relatively quickly after infection resolves - Anti-O antibodies are more indicative of acute/recent infection - Anti-H antibodies are less specific due to their prolonged persistence and possible cross-reactions

Q: Which of the following is non-motile:

Burkholderia mallei. ***Burkholderia mallei*** - This bacterium is notably **non-motile**, lacking flagella, which is a key characteristic differentiating it from other members of its genus. - It is a **facultative intracellular pathogen** capable of surviving within host cells, primarily causing **glanders** in equids and occasional human infections. - Its immobility is a significant feature in its identification and pathogenesis. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - This bacterium is highly **motile** due to the presence of **polar flagella**. - Its motility contributes to its ability to colonize and invade host tissues, common in opportunistic infections. *Burkholderia pseudomallei* - This species is known to be **motile** by means of flagella, which aids its survival and dissemination in diverse environments and within a host. - It is the causative agent of **melioidosis**, a severe infectious disease. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Burkholderia mallei** is indeed non-motile, making it a correct choice among the provided options. - The other specified bacteria, *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* and *Burkholderia pseudomallei*, are motile.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about Corynebacterium hofmannii?

Toxigenic. ***Toxigenic*** - *Corynebacterium hofmannii* is a **non-toxigenic** species and does not produce **diphtheria toxin**, unlike *C. diphtheriae*. - Its clinical significance primarily relates to its potential role in opportunistic infections, not toxin-mediated diseases. - This is the **correct answer** as C. hofmannii being toxigenic is NOT true. *A diphtheroid* - **Diphtheroid** refers to gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria morphologically similar to *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*. - *C. hofmannii* fits this description due to its characteristic morphology and belongs to the Corynebacterium genus. - This statement is TRUE. *Non-pathogenic saprophyte* - *C. hofmannii* is commonly found as a **commensal organism** on human skin and mucous membranes as part of normal flora. - While generally non-pathogenic, it can cause opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals. - This statement is TRUE. *Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat* - *C. hofmannii* is indeed found as part of the **normal respiratory tract flora**, including the throat and upper respiratory passages. - It is a common colonizer and generally harmless commensal. - This statement is TRUE.

Q: Which organism is considered the PRIMARY prototype for Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) staining identification?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis. ***Mycobacterium tuberculosis*** - The **Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain** is the classic **acid-fast staining** technique used to identify **Mycobacterium species**, particularly **M. tuberculosis** - **Mycobacteria** possess high content of **mycolic acid** (60-90 carbon fatty acids) in their cell wall, making them resistant to decolorization by acid-alcohol - After staining with **carbol fuchsin** (heated), acid-fast bacilli retain the **red/pink color** while non-acid-fast organisms are decolorized and counterstained blue - M. tuberculosis is the **prototype organism** for acid-fast staining and remains the primary clinical application of ZN stain - **Note:** Modified ZN stain (using weaker 1% H2SO4) is used for **weakly acid-fast organisms** like Nocardia and Cryptosporidium *Streptococcus pneumoniae* - This is a **Gram-positive coccus** identified by **Gram staining**, not acid-fast staining - Appears as lancet-shaped diplococci on Gram stain - Lacks mycolic acid in cell wall and cannot retain carbol fuchsin after acid-alcohol decolorization *Escherichia coli* - This is a **Gram-negative bacillus** with thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane - Identified by **Gram staining** (appears pink/red) and biochemical tests - Not acid-fast and would be completely decolorized in ZN staining procedure *Clostridium difficile* - This is an **anaerobic, Gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus** - Identified by **Gram staining** and anaerobic culture - Lacks mycolic acid and acid-fast properties, making it unsuitable for ZN staining

Q: What is required for precipitation in comparison to agglutination?

Soluble antigen. ***Soluble antigen*** - **Precipitation reactions** involve the interaction of antibodies with **soluble antigens** to form a detectable precipitate. - Unlike **agglutination**, which involves particulate antigens (e.g., cells), precipitation requires the antigen to be dissolved in a solution. *Increased temperature* - Most immunologic reactions, including precipitation and agglutination, are typically performed at **physiological temperatures** (e.g., 37°C) or room temperature. - An **increased temperature** is not a specific requirement that differentiates precipitation from agglutination. *Specific cofactor* - While some complex immunologic reactions might require **cofactors**, neither precipitation nor agglutination inherently requires a specific cofactor to occur. - The primary components are **antigen** and **antibody**. *Lower pH* - Both precipitation and agglutination reactions are sensitive to pH and typically occur within a **narrow pH range** close to neutral (e.g., pH 7.0-7.4). - A **lower pH** (acidic environment) could lead to antibody denaturation or non-specific aggregation, ultimately hindering the reaction rather than being a requirement.

Q: Capsular polysaccharide derived vaccine is available for all meningococci except?

Group B. ***Group B*** - The capsular polysaccharide of **Group B meningococci** is composed of **polysialic acid**, which is poorly immunogenic in humans because it structurally mimics human neural cell adhesion molecules. - Due to its **poor immunogenicity** and risk of autoantibody production, traditional polysaccharide vaccines are ineffective against Group B. *Group A* - Polysaccharide vaccines for **Group A meningococci** (e.g., in Menactra, Menveo) are effective in inducing a protective immune response. - Group A is a major cause of meningococcal disease, particularly in the **"meningitis belt"** of sub-Saharan Africa. *Group C* - **Capsular polysaccharide vaccines** are available and effective against Group C meningococcal disease, often included in quadrivalent formulations. - These vaccines elicit a robust **antibody response** against the Group C polysaccharide. *Group Y* - Vaccines containing the **capsular polysaccharide** of Group Y meningococci are effective and commonly included in quadrivalent vaccines. - Group Y is a significant cause of meningococcal disease, particularly in **North America and Europe**.

Q: What is a common characteristic of the H5N1 and H7N7 strains of influenza?

Strains of avian influenza. ***Strains of avian influenza*** - Both **H5N1** and **H7N7** are well-known subtypes of the **influenza A virus** that primarily infect birds. - While they can infect humans, their natural reservoir and main hosts are **avian species**. *Frequent endemic infection in man* - These strains are not endemic in humans; human infections are typically **sporadic** and associated with close contact with infected birds. - They lack efficient **human-to-human transmission**, which prevents them from becoming endemic in the human population. *Have same frequency of antigenic variation* - Although both undergo **antigenic variation**, the specific frequency and patterns can differ between strains and are influenced by various factors, including their host range and circulation dynamics. - It is inaccurate to assume identical frequencies of **antigenic drift** and **shift** for different viral subtypes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because "Strains of avian influenza" is a correct and common characteristic shared by both H5N1 and H7N7.

Q: Which of the following is an example of the transfer of drug resistance by conjugation?

E coli to streptomycin. **E coli to streptomycin** - The transfer of **streptomycin resistance** in *E. coli* is a classic example of **conjugation**, mediated by **transferable R-plasmids**. - **Conjugation** involves direct cell-to-cell contact and the transfer of genetic material via a **pilus**, allowing for efficient spread of resistance genes. *Staphylococci to rifampicin* - **Rifampicin resistance** in *Staphylococci* (e.g., MRSA) primarily results from **chromosomal mutations** in the *rpoB* gene, which alters the drug's binding site. - This type of resistance usually arises through **spontaneous mutation and selection**, rather than active transfer via conjugation. *Pneumococcus to penicillin G* - **Penicillin resistance** in *Pneumococcus* (e.g., **PEN-R *S. pneumoniae***) is often due to alterations in **penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)**, acquired through **transformation**. - Transformation involves the uptake of **naked DNA** from the environment, not direct cell-to-cell contact as in conjugation. *M tuberculosis to antitubercular drugs* - **Drug resistance** in *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* to antitubercular drugs (such as isoniazid and rifampicin) is predominantly mediated by **chromosomal mutations**. - These mutations occur within genes encoding drug targets or drug-activating enzymes, leading to altered drug sensitivity.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a recognized transmission route for amoebiasis?

Accepted Answer

Vector transmission

Answer

Sexual transmission

Answer

Blood and blood products

Answer

Fecal-oral route

Question 2

To which part of an antigen do monoclonal antibodies specifically bind?

Accepted Answer

Specific epitope on the antigen

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Both the epitope and the paratope

Answer

Part of the antibody that binds to the epitope

Question 3

Which of the following statements about the Widal test is true?

Accepted Answer

The O antigen used in the Widal test is from S. typhi.

Answer

The H-antigen is the most immunogenic.

Answer

Felix tubes are not used in the Widal test.

Answer

Anti-O antibody persists longer than anti-H antibody.

Question 4

Which of the following is non-motile:

Accepted Answer

Burkholderia mallei

Answer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer

Burkholderia pseudomallei

Answer

None of the options

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT true about Corynebacterium hofmannii?

Accepted Answer

Toxigenic

Answer

Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat

Answer

A diphtheroid

Answer

Non-pathogenic saprophyte

Question 6

Which organism is considered the PRIMARY prototype for Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) staining identification?

Accepted Answer

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer

Escherichia coli

Answer

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer

Clostridium difficile

Question 7

What is required for precipitation in comparison to agglutination?

Accepted Answer

Soluble antigen

Answer

Increased temperature

Answer

Specific cofactor

Answer

Lower pH

Question 8

Capsular polysaccharide derived vaccine is available for all meningococci except?

Accepted Answer

Group B

Answer

Group C

Answer

Group Y

Answer

Group A

Question 9

What is a common characteristic of the H5N1 and H7N7 strains of influenza?

Accepted Answer

Strains of avian influenza

Answer

Frequent endemic infection in man

Answer

Have same frequency of antigenic variation

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

Which of the following is an example of the transfer of drug resistance by conjugation?

Accepted Answer

E coli to streptomycin

Answer

Staphylococci to rifampicin

Answer

Pneumococcus to penicillin G

Answer

M tuberculosis to antitubercular drugs

NEET-PG 2015 — Microbiology