NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?

Platypnea. ***Platypnea*** - **Platypnea** is defined as **dyspnea that worsens in an upright position** and improves when lying down. - This condition is often associated with **hepatopulmonary syndrome**, **intracardiac shunts** (e.g., patent foramen ovale), or **pulmonary arteriovenous malformations**, where gravity affects blood flow and gas exchange. *Tachypnea* - **Tachypnea** refers to an **abnormally rapid rate of breathing**. - It describes the *rate* of respiration, not its variation with body position. *Orthopnea* - **Orthopnea** is **dyspnea that occurs when lying flat** and is relieved by sitting or standing up [1]. - It is often seen in conditions like **heart failure**, where fluid redistribution to the lungs is exacerbated in the supine position [2]. *Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea* - **Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)** is characterized by **sudden, severe shortness of breath at night** that awakens the person from sleep [2]. - It is typically caused by **left-sided heart failure** and is relieved by sitting upright or standing, which is the opposite of the described scenario.

Q: Clicking noise in Pneumomediastinum is known as

Hamman's sign. Hamman's sign - Hamman's sign is a crunching, bubbling, or clicking sound synchronous with the heartbeat, audible on auscultation over the precordium. - It is pathognomonic for pneumomediastinum, caused by the heart beating against air-filled tissues. Traube's sign - Traube's sign refers to a pistol-shot sound heard over the femoral artery in severe aortic regurgitation [1]. - It is a vascular sign and not related to pneumomediastinum. Kussmaul's sign - Kussmaul's sign is a paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. - It is typically seen in conditions like constrictive pericarditis or right ventricular infarction, not pneumomediastinum. None of the options - This option is incorrect because Hamman's sign accurately describes the clicking noise associated with pneumomediastinum. - The other options refer to different clinical phenomena unrelated to pneumomediastinum.

Q: Which of the following is least likely to be associated with emphysema?

Type I respiratory failure. **Type I respiratory failure** - **Emphysema** primarily causes **Type II respiratory failure** (hypercapnic) due to impaired gas exchange and CO2 retention resulting from alveolar destruction and air trapping [2][4]. - While hypoxemia can occur in severe emphysema, it is the more prominent **hypercapnia** that defines its typical respiratory failure pattern, making pure Type I less likely [3][4]. *Associated with smoking* - **Cigarette smoking** is the leading cause of emphysema, directly linked to the destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic recoil [1]. - The inhaled toxins trigger an inflammatory response in the lungs, leading to the release of proteases that break down lung tissue [1][2]. *Barrel shaped chest* - This is a classic sign of advanced emphysema, caused by **chronic air trapping** and subsequent hyperinflation of the lungs [2]. - The diaphragm flattens, and the ribs become more horizontal, increasing the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. *Cyanosis* - Often seen in patients with severe emphysema (especially in a subgroup referred to as "blue bloaters" for chronic bronchitis overlap) due to **significant hypoxemia** [3]. - Impaired gas exchange leads to insufficient oxygenation of hemoglobin, causing a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes [3].

Q: What is the most common cause of lung abscess in comatose patients?

Oral anaerobes. Oral anaerobes - **Comatose patients** are at high risk for **aspiration** of oropharyngeal flora, which predominantly consists of anaerobic bacteria. [1] - Aspiration of these organisms, especially in compromised lung tissue, frequently leads to **necrotizing pneumonia** and subsequent abscess formation. [1] *Staph aureus* - While *Staphylococcus aureus* can cause lung abscesses, particularly in the context of **hematogenous spread** (e.g., endocarditis) or nosocomial infections, it is not the most common cause in *comatose patients* who typically aspirate oral flora. [2] - *S. aureus* lung abscesses are often associated with multiple, smaller lesions rather than a single, large abscess from aspiration. *Klebsiella* - *Klebsiella pneumoniae* can cause severe, **rapidly progressive pneumonia** that may lead to abscess formation, especially in individuals with **alcoholism** or **diabetes**. - However, it is less common than oral anaerobes as the primary cause of abscess in the general population of comatose patients, whose main risk factor is aspiration of normal oral flora. [1] *Tuberculosis* - **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** can cause cavitary lung lesions, but these are typically chronic and result from primary or reactivated tuberculosis disease, not acute aspiration. [3] - Lung abscesses caused by tuberculosis are histologically distinct from pyogenic abscesses and are characterized by **granulomatous inflammation** and caseous necrosis.

Q: Which of the following is seen in sarcoidosis

Increased calcium levels in the blood (Hypercalcemia). ***Increased calcium levels in the blood (Hypercalcemia)*** - In sarcoidosis, activated macrophages in granulomas produce **1-alpha hydroxylase**, which converts **25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol)** [1]. - This increased calcitriol leads to enhanced intestinal **calcium absorption** and occasional bone resorption, resulting in **hypercalcemia** [1]. *Decreased calcium levels in the blood (Hypocalcemia)* - **Hypocalcemia** is not characteristic of sarcoidosis; the disease typically involves dysregulated vitamin D metabolism causing elevated, not decreased, calcium [1]. - Conditions like **hypoparathyroidism** or **vitamin D deficiency** (unrelated to the sarcoidosis pathogenesis) would cause hypocalcemia. *Increased phosphate levels in the blood (Hyperphosphatemia)* - **Hyperphosphatemia** is not a feature of sarcoidosis. Calcium and phosphate levels often have an inverse relationship, so with hypercalcemia, phosphate levels tend to be normal or slightly decreased due to suppression of parathyroid hormone. - Hyperphosphatemia is more commonly associated with **renal failure** or certain **endocrine disorders**. *Decreased phosphate levels in the blood (Hypophosphatemia)* - While **hypophosphatemia** can occur in conditions with high vitamin D activity (as increased active vitamin D can promote renal phosphate excretion), it is not the primary or most notable electrolyte disturbance specifically linked to sarcoidosis. - **Hypercalcemia** is the more consistently observed electrolyte abnormality in sarcoidosis related to ectopic vitamin D production [1].

Q: Recrudescences are commonly seen in which type of malaria:

P. falciparum. ***P. falciparum*** - **Recrudescence** refers to the reappearance of malaria symptoms after a period of remission, due to the survival and subsequent increase of asexual parasites in the blood [1]. - This is common in *P. falciparum* due to the high parasite burden and its ability to sequester in deep capillaries, evading splenic clearance and developing drug resistance. *P. vivax* - *P. vivax* is known for **relapses**, which are caused by the activation of dormant liver stages called **hypnozoites**, rather than a recrudescence of blood-stage parasites [1]. - Relapses can occur months or years after the initial infection, even after the blood-stage parasites have been cleared. *P. malariae* - *P. malariae* is uniquely characterized by infections that can persist for many years, even decades, causing symptoms of **recrudescence**, although less frequently than *P. falciparum* [1]. - It has a prolonged erythrocytic cycle, which can lead to chronic low-level parasitemia and sporadic symptomatic episodes. *P. ovale* - Similar to *P. vivax*, *P. ovale* also causes **relapses** due to the presence of **hypnozoites** in the liver [1]. - While it can manifest with symptoms similar to *P. vivax*, it is generally less common and causes milder disease.

Q: Which condition is not associated with complement deficiency?

Membranous nephritis. Membranous nephritis - Membranous nephritis is associated with immune complex deposition rather than complement deficiencies. [1] - The disease is characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane without significant complement involvement. [1] PNH - Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is due to a defect in the GPI-anchor leading to complement-mediated hemolysis. - Complement activation plays a critical role in the destruction of red blood cells in this condition. Hereditary angioedema - Hereditary angioedema is caused by deficiencies in C1 inhibitor, leading to uncontrolled activation of complement. - This results in edema episodes, directly linked to complement pathway dysregulation. SLE - Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) involves complement consumption due to autoantibody formation against nuclear antigens. - The disease often presents with hypocomplementemia, indicating complement system involvement.

Q: What is the PRIMARY evidence-based intervention for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

Closed drainage technique to minimize bacterial entry. ***Closed drainage technique to minimize bacterial entry*** - Maintaining a **closed drainage system** prevents the entry of bacteria into the urinary tract, which is a primary cause of CAUTIs. - This technique involves ensuring the connection between the catheter and the drainage bag remains sealed at all times, minimizing **environmental contamination**. *Prophylactic antibiotics are effective* - **Prophylactic antibiotics** are generally not recommended for routine CAUTI prevention due to concerns about **antibiotic resistance** and limited evidence of effectiveness [1]. - Their use is typically reserved for specific high-risk procedures or patient populations. *Use of face mask during catheter insertion* - While maintaining **asepsis** during catheter insertion is crucial, the use of a face mask specifically addresses **respiratory droplet transmission**, which is not the primary route of bacterial entry into the urinary system during catheterization. - **Sterile gloves** and a **sterile field** are more directly relevant for preventing contamination during insertion [1]. *Early catheter removal when clinically appropriate* - While **early catheter removal** is a critical strategy for CAUTI prevention by reducing dwell time, the question asks for the *primary* evidence-based intervention [1]. A **closed drainage system** directly addresses the mechanism of bacterial entry while the catheter is in place. - Reducing catheter duration minimizes risk, but the closed system ensures safety during the necessary period of catheterization.

Q: Buboes form is which stage of LGV?

Secondary. ***Secondary*** - Buboes, which are swollen, painful lymph nodes, are a hallmark of the **secondary stage** of **Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)** [1]. - This stage typically develops weeks after the initial infection, following the unnoticed or transient primary lesion. *Primary* - The primary stage of LGV is characterized by a **small, painless papule or ulcer** at the site of inoculation, which often goes unnoticed. - **Buboes are not formed** during this initial, often asymptomatic, phase. *Tertiary* - The tertiary stage of LGV involves **chronic inflammation** and **tissue destruction**, leading to complications like **genital elephantiasis**, rectal strictures, and fistulas. - While there is chronic lymphedema, the acute, painful buboes are characteristic of the secondary stage, not this late, destructive phase. *Latent* - The concept of a latent stage is not typically used to describe the progression of LGV in the same way as other infections like syphilis. - LGV progresses through distinct symptomatic primary, secondary, and potentially tertiary stages without a prolonged asymptomatic latency period between symptom presentations.

Q: ABO non- secretors are more prone to ?

Increased risk of infections. Increased risk of infections - Non-secretors of ABO antigens exhibit an increased susceptibility to a variety of infections, particularly bacterial and viral pathogens. - This is thought to be due to the absence of ABO antigens in secretions, which typically act as decoy receptors to prevent pathogen adhesion to host cells. Autoimmune diseases - While some associations between ABO blood groups and autoimmune diseases exist, non-secretor status is not consistently linked to a higher overall risk of autoimmune conditions. Cardiovascular diseases - ABO blood groups have been associated with cardiovascular risk, with non-O blood types generally having a slightly higher risk of certain cardiovascular events. - However, secretor status (the ability to secrete ABO antigens into bodily fluids) itself is not a prominent independent risk factor for cardiovascular diseases. Cancer - There are some documented associations between specific ABO blood types and certain types of cancer (e.g., non-O blood types with pancreatic cancer), but this is distinct from secretor status. - Being an ABO non-secretor is not a primary, broadly recognized risk factor for developing cancer.

Question 1

In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?

Accepted Answer

Platypnea

Answer

Tachypnea

Answer

Orthopnea

Answer

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Question 2

Clicking noise in Pneumomediastinum is known as

Accepted Answer

Hamman's sign

Answer

Traube's sign

Answer

Kussmaul's sign

Answer

None of the options

Question 3

Which of the following is least likely to be associated with emphysema?

Accepted Answer

Type I respiratory failure

Answer

Associated with smoking

Answer

Barrel shaped chest

Answer

Cyanosis

Question 4

What is the most common cause of lung abscess in comatose patients?

Accepted Answer

Oral anaerobes

Answer

Staph aureus

Answer

Klebsiella

Answer

Tuberculosis

Question 5

Which of the following is seen in sarcoidosis

Accepted Answer

Increased calcium levels in the blood (Hypercalcemia)

Answer

Decreased calcium levels in the blood (Hypocalcemia)

Answer

Increased phosphate levels in the blood (Hyperphosphatemia)

Answer

Decreased phosphate levels in the blood (Hypophosphatemia)

Question 6

Recrudescences are commonly seen in which type of malaria:

Accepted Answer

P. falciparum

Answer

P. vivax

Answer

P. malariae

Answer

P. ovale

Question 7

Which condition is not associated with complement deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Membranous nephritis

Answer

SLE

Answer

PNH

Answer

Hereditary angioedema

Question 8

What is the PRIMARY evidence-based intervention for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

Accepted Answer

Closed drainage technique to minimize bacterial entry

Answer

Use of face mask during catheter insertion

Answer

Prophylactic antibiotics are effective

Answer

Early catheter removal when clinically appropriate

Question 9

Buboes form is which stage of LGV?

Accepted Answer

Secondary

Answer

Tertiary

Answer

Latent

Answer

Primary

Question 10

ABO non- secretors are more prone to ?

Accepted Answer

Increased risk of infections

Answer

Autoimmune diseases

Answer

Cardiovascular diseases

Answer

Cancer

NEET-PG 2015 — Internal Medicine