Anatomy
1 questionsWhich nerve is not involved in superior orbital fissure syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Which nerve is not involved in superior orbital fissure syndrome?
- A. 1st cranial nerve (Correct Answer)
- B. 3rd cranial nerve
- C. 4th cranial nerve
- D. 6th cranial nerve
Explanation: ***1st cranial nerve*** - The **olfactory nerve (CN I)** is responsible for the sense of smell [2] and passes through the **cribriform plate** of the ethmoid bone, not the superior orbital fissure. - Due to its distinct pathway, it is not affected in **superior orbital fissure syndrome**. *3rd cranial nerve* - The **oculomotor nerve (CN III)** passes through the superior orbital fissure and is frequently involved in the syndrome. - Its involvement leads to ophthalmoplegia, ptosis, and a dilated pupil due to paralysis of most extrinsic ocular muscles [1], [3] and the parasympathetic fibers [1]. *4th cranial nerve* - The **trochlear nerve (CN IV)** also travels through the superior orbital fissure. - Damage to this nerve causes **diplopia** and impaired downward and intorsion movements of the eye due to paralysis of the **superior oblique muscle** [3]. *6th cranial nerve* - The **abducens nerve (CN VI)** enters the orbit via the superior orbital fissure. - Injury to the abducens nerve results in **lateral rectus muscle** palsy, leading to esotropia (medial deviation of the eye) and impaired abduction [3].
Internal Medicine
6 questionsAdrenal reserve is best tested by means of infusion with
What is the best immediate management strategy for a patient experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety-induced hyperventilation?
A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with central chest pain for 2 hours. The ECG shows ST segment depression and cardiac troponins are elevated. The patient has a positive history of previous PCI 3 months back. He is administered Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Nitrates, and LMWH in the Emergency Department and shifted to the coronary care unit. What is the best recommended course of further action?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?
Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?
What is Reifenstein syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Adrenal reserve is best tested by means of infusion with
- A. ACTH (Correct Answer)
- B. Metyrapone
- C. Corticosteroids
- D. LHRH
Explanation: ACTH - The **ACTH stimulation test**, also known as the **cosyntropin test**, is the most common dynamic test for assessing adrenal reserve. - Exogenous ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol; a subnormal response indicates adrenal insufficiency. *Corticosteroids* - **Corticosteroids** are hormones (like cortisol) produced by the adrenal glands, or synthetic versions used as medications; they do not test adrenal reserve but rather *replace* adrenal function. - Administering corticosteroids would interfere with, rather than assess, the adrenal gland's ability to produce its own hormones. *LHRH* - **Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH)** is used to assess the function of the anterior pituitary gland and gonads, not the adrenal glands. - An LHRH stimulation test evaluates the pituitary's ability to release LH and FSH, which in turn stimulate gonadal hormone production. *Metyrapone* - The **metyrapone test** assesses the integrity of the **hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis** by blocking cortisol synthesis, which should lead to an increase in ACTH and 11-deoxycortisol [1]. - While it evaluates a part of adrenal function, it is primarily used to differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency, and not a direct measure of cortisol production capacity in response to stimulation.
Question 842: What is the best immediate management strategy for a patient experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety-induced hyperventilation?
- A. Rebreathing in paper bag (Correct Answer)
- B. IPPV
- C. Normal saline
- D. Acetazolamide
Explanation: ***Rebreathing in paper bag*** - This helps to **increase the inspired CO2 concentration**, thereby correcting the hypocapnia (low CO2) caused by hyperventilation. - It's a simple, non-invasive method to raise arterial PCO2 and normalize blood pH in acute respiratory alkalosis. *IPPV* - **Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV)** would further reduce CO2 by assisting ventilation and is typically used for respiratory *acidosis* or failure [1]. - This intervention would worsen the patient's respiratory alkalosis rather than alleviating it. *Normal saline* - **Normal saline** administration is primarily used for volume expansion or to correct electrolyte imbalances; it does not directly address respiratory alkalosis. - It would not correct the underlying issue of excessive CO2 exhalation. *Acetazolamide* - **Acetazolamide** is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces bicarbonate reabsorption and is used to treat metabolic alkalosis or as a diuretic. - It would not be an immediate or appropriate solution for acute respiratory alkalosis and might even worsen the acid-base balance if used improperly.
Question 843: A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with central chest pain for 2 hours. The ECG shows ST segment depression and cardiac troponins are elevated. The patient has a positive history of previous PCI 3 months back. He is administered Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Nitrates, and LMWH in the Emergency Department and shifted to the coronary care unit. What is the best recommended course of further action?
- A. Early Revascularization with PCI (Correct Answer)
- B. Continue conservative management and monitoring of cardiac enzymes and ECG
- C. Continue conservative management and plan for outpatient follow-up
- D. Immediate Revascularization with Coronary Angiography
Explanation: ***Early Revascularization with PCI*** - The patient presents with **NSTEMI** (ST depression, elevated troponins) and is already on antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. **Early revascularization** (ideally within 24 hours for high-risk NSTEMI) is indicated to restore blood flow and prevent further myocardial damage [1]. - Given the patient's history of prior **PCI** and the current NSTEMI presentation, this suggests possible **in-stent restenosis** or progression of coronary artery disease, making revascularization crucial. *Continue conservative management and monitoring of cardiac enzymes and ECG* - While initial conservative management with medications is appropriate, simply continuing monitoring without definitive intervention is insufficient for a **high-risk NSTEMI** patient. - The elevated troponins and ST depression indicate ongoing myocardial injury that requires active management beyond just observation [1]. *Continue conservative management and plan for outpatient follow-up* - This approach is entirely inappropriate for a patient presenting with an **acute coronary syndrome (NSTEMI)**. - Outpatient follow-up is for stable conditions, not for an ongoing cardiac event that requires urgent hospital-based intervention. *Immediate Revascularization with Coronary Angiography* - **Immediate revascularization** (within 90 minutes) is primarily indicated for **STEMI** (ST elevation myocardial infarction). - While coronary angiography will precede PCI, the term "immediate" in this context usually refers to the urgency seen in STEMI; NSTEMI typically warrants "early" rather than "immediate" intervention (within 12-24 hours for high-risk patients like this one) [1].
Question 844: Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?
- A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- B. Halitosis
- C. Syndactyly (Correct Answer)
- D. Decrease in tone of LES
Explanation: ***Syndactyly*** - **Syndactyly** (fusion of digits) is a congenital anomaly and is **not** a typical feature of scleroderma. - Scleroderma primarily involves **fibrosis** and vascular changes, leading to skin thickening, not digit fusion [1]. *Decrease in tone of LES* - A **decrease in tone of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** is a common gastrointestinal manifestation of scleroderma. - This leads to **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** and related symptoms due to smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis. *Restrictive cardiomyopathy* - **Restrictive cardiomyopathy** can occur in scleroderma due to **myocardial fibrosis**, leading to impaired diastolic filling. - This is a serious cardiac complication that can cause **heart failure**. *Halitosis* - **Halitosis** (bad breath) can be an indirect manifestation of scleroderma, often associated with severe **GERD**. - Impaired esophageal motility and reflux are common in scleroderma and can contribute to dental problems and **oral dysbiosis**, which can cause halitosis.
Question 845: Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?
- A. GI bleeding (Correct Answer)
- B. Convulsions
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L
Explanation: ***GI bleeding*** - While patients on dialysis may experience gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not a direct indication for initiating or continuing **hemodialysis**. - **GI bleeding** in end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients can be due to various causes and requires specific management of the bleeding itself, not necessarily an alteration in dialysis prescription. *Convulsions* - **Convulsions** in patients with renal failure, especially due to uremia, are a severe manifestation of **uremic encephalopathy**. - This is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** as it rapidly removes uremic toxins causing central nervous system dysfunction. *Pericarditis* - **Uremic pericarditis**, characterized by inflammation of the pericardium due to accumulation of uremic toxins, is a serious complication of renal failure. - It is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** to prevent further cardiac complications like cardiac tamponade. *Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L* - Severe **hyperkalemia** (typically > 6.0-6.5 mEq/L) is a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance that can cause cardiac arrhythmias. - **Hemodialysis** is highly effective in rapidly removing potassium from the body and is an absolute indication, especially if unresponsive to other medical therapies.
Question 846: What is Reifenstein syndrome?
- A. Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome due to receptor mutation. (Correct Answer)
- B. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome with female external genitalia
- C. 5-alpha reductase deficiency causing ambiguous genitalia
- D. Gonadal dysgenesis with streak gonads
Explanation: Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome due to receptor mutation. - **Reifenstein syndrome** is a form of **partial androgen insensitivity syndrome (PAIS)**, characterized by varying degrees of undervirilization in 46,XY individuals. [4] - It results from mutations in the **androgen receptor (AR) gene**, leading to impaired androgen signaling. [4] *Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome with female external genitalia* - This describes **complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS)**, where affected individuals are 46,XY with completely female external genitalia, normal breast development, but no uterus. [4] - Unlike Reifenstein syndrome, there are no signs of virilization. [4] *5-alpha reductase deficiency causing ambiguous genitalia* - **5-alpha reductase deficiency** impedes the conversion of testosterone to the more potent **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)**, which is crucial for external male genital development. - While it causes **ambiguous genitalia**, it's a defect in hormone metabolism, not the androgen receptor itself. *Gonadal dysgenesis with streak gonads* - **Gonadal dysgenesis** refers to conditions where the gonads (testes or ovaries) fail to develop or develop abnormally, often leading to **streak gonads**. [3] - This is a primary gonadal developmental defect, distinct from disorders of androgen action or synthesis. [1], [2]
Ophthalmology
1 questionsWhich agent is known to cause corneal ulcers that may resemble fungal infections?
NEET-PG 2013 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Which agent is known to cause corneal ulcers that may resemble fungal infections?
- A. Nocardia asteroides (Correct Answer)
- B. Mycobacterium
- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation: ***Nocardia asteroides*** - This organism can cause **Nocardia keratitis**, which often presents with a **feathery or crystalline appearance** in the cornea, mimicking a fungal infection. - It tends to occur in patients with **contact lens use** or ocular trauma and requires specific antimicrobial treatment different from fungal therapy. *Mycobacterium* - **Atypical mycobacteria** can cause chronic, indolent corneal ulcers, particularly after trauma or surgery. - While they can be challenging to diagnose, their appearance typically differs from the **feathery morphology** associated with fungal or Nocardia infections. *Klebsiella pneumoniae* - **Klebsiella pneumoniae** is a common cause of **bacterial keratitis**, especially in contact lens wearers. - Infections usually manifest as a rapidly progressing infiltrate with significant inflammation and often produce abundant **mucopurulent discharge**, not typically mistaken for fungal infections. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - **Chlamydia trachomatis** is the causative agent of **trachoma**, leading to recurrent conjunctivitis and eventually corneal scarring and blindness in endemic areas. - It does not cause acute corneal ulcers that resemble fungal infections; rather, it results in a chronic inflammatory process with **follicular conjunctivitis** and **pannus formation**.
Pathology
1 questionsThe most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma is:
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: The most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma is:
- A. t(14;16)
- B. t(4;14)
- C. t(11;14) (Correct Answer)
- D. t(14;20)
Explanation: ***t(11;14)*** - This translocation is the **most common cytogenetic abnormality** found in patients with multiple myeloma, occurring in approximately 15-20% of cases. - It results in the juxtaposition of the **IgH gene on chromosome 14** with the **cyclin D1 gene on chromosome 11**, leading to overexpression of cyclin D1. *t(4;14)* - This translocation, occurring in about 5-10% of patients, is associated with a **poor prognosis** in multiple myeloma. - It involves the IgH gene on chromosome 14 and the **FGFR3 and MMSET genes on chromosome 4**, leading to their upregulation. *t(14;16)* - This translocation is also associated with a **poor prognosis** and is less common than t(11;14) or t(4;14), found in about 2-5% of cases. - It involves the **IgH gene on chromosome 14** and the **c-MAF gene on chromosome 16**, leading to overexpression of c-MAF. *t(14;20)* - This translocation is **rarely observed** in multiple myeloma patients, typically occurring in less than 1% of cases. - It involves the **IgH gene on chromosome 14** and the **MAFB gene on chromosome 20**, which can also contribute to disease progression.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the drug of choice for managing generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) during pregnancy?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: What is the drug of choice for managing generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) during pregnancy?
- A. Lamotrigine (Correct Answer)
- B. CBZ
- C. Levetiracetam
- D. Valproate
Explanation: ***Lamotrigine*** - **Lamotrigine** is considered **one of the preferred drugs** for managing epilepsy during pregnancy due to its relatively **low teratogenic risk** compared to older antiepileptic drugs. - Its established safety profile in pregnancy makes it a preferred option to balance seizure control and **fetal well-being**. - **Important Note:** For **GTCS specifically**, lamotrigine and levetiracetam are both considered appropriate first-line choices, with selection depending on individual patient factors and seizure control history. - Lamotrigine levels **decrease during pregnancy** and require monitoring and dose adjustments. *CBZ* - **Carbamazepine (CBZ)** is associated with an increased risk of **neural tube defects** and other congenital malformations when used during pregnancy, making it less favorable. - While effective for GTCS, its teratogenicity often leads to avoidance or careful consideration of alternatives in pregnant women. *Levetiracetam* - **Levetiracetam** is increasingly recognized as an **excellent choice for GTCS in pregnancy** with a favorable safety profile and growing evidence base. - Many recent guidelines and clinical practices favor levetiracetam as **first-line for GTCS** due to its low risk of major congenital malformations and good efficacy. - It is a **medically appropriate alternative** to lamotrigine, and in some contexts may be preferred, particularly for primary generalized epilepsy. *Valproate* - **Valproate** has the highest risk of **teratogenicity** among common antiepileptic drugs, including a significant risk of **neural tube defects**, developmental delay, autism spectrum disorder, and other anomalies. - Due to these significant risks, valproate is generally **contraindicated** in women of childbearing potential, especially during pregnancy, unless no other effective and safer alternative exists.