NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which muscle will be paralyzed when the radial nerve is injured just below the spiral groove?

Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis - The radial nerve travels in the spiral groove of the humerus and gives off branches in a specific sequence. - Proximal to the spiral groove: Branches to triceps and anconeus - Within/at the spiral groove: Branches to brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) - Just distal to the spiral groove: Branch to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) [1] - this is the first branch after exiting the spiral groove - More distally: The nerve divides into superficial and deep branches (posterior interosseous nerve) [1] - An injury just below the spiral groove would paralyze ECRB while sparing muscles innervated proximal to or within the groove (triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, ECRL). Supinator - The supinator is innervated by the deep branch of the radial nerve (posterior interosseous nerve), which branches off more distally in the proximal forearm. - This muscle would only be affected by injuries distal to the bifurcation of the radial nerve into superficial and deep branches, not by an injury just below the spiral groove. Extensor Digitorum - The extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous nerve, which is a continuation of the deep branch [1]. - This innervation occurs significantly distal to the spiral groove in the posterior forearm compartment. - It would be affected by posterior interosseous nerve injuries, not by lesions just below the spiral groove. Abductor Pollicis Longus - The abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve in the distal forearm [1]. - This is the most distal of all the options and would only be affected by posterior interosseous nerve palsy, not by radial nerve injury at the spiral groove level [1].

Q: The blood supply to femoral head is mostly by?

Profunda femoris. ***Profunda femoris*** - The profunda femoris artery (deep femoral artery) gives rise to the **medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries**, which are the primary blood supply to the femoral head in adults - Specifically, the **medial circumflex femoral artery** and its branches (lateral epiphyseal arteries and retinacular arteries) form an extracapsular arterial ring and penetrate the joint capsule to supply the femoral head - The profunda femoris is thus the main parent vessel responsible for femoral head blood supply *Lateral epiphyseal artery* - This artery is a branch of the **medial circumflex femoral artery**, which originates from the profunda femoris - While it directly supplies the femoral head and is the dominant terminal branch, it represents a more specific component of the arterial network rather than the main source vessel - It provides blood to the lateral and superior portions of the femoral head *Medial epiphyseal artery* - This artery is also a branch of the circumflex femoral arteries, which originate from the profunda femoris - It contributes to the blood supply but is less dominant than the lateral epiphyseal branches - Similar to lateral epiphyseal artery, it is part of the retinacular arterial system *Artery of ligamentum teres* - The **artery of the ligamentum teres** (foveal artery) is an inconsistent and often small vessel, typically a branch of the **obturator artery** or medial circumflex femoral artery - While it contributes to blood supply especially in children, its contribution is usually minor in adults and often insufficient to sustain the femoral head alone - It enters through the fovea capitis and its contribution diminishes with age

Q: Which of the following statements about Polycythemia vera is false?

Increased LAP score. ***Decrease LAP score*** - In polycythemia vera, the **LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) score** is typically increased, indicating more mature leukocytes. - A **decrease in LAP score** is not consistent with the disease, making this statement incorrect. *Increased platelets* - Polycythemia vera often results in **thrombocytosis**, characterized by increased platelet counts [1]. - This is a common feature of the disorder, reflecting overproduction of blood cells in the bone marrow. *Leucocytosis* - Patients with polycythemia vera frequently exhibit **leucocytosis**, or increased white blood cell counts, due to hypercellularity of the bone marrow [1]. - This is an important aspect of the disease, often seen alongside increases in red blood cells and platelets. *Increased vit B12* - An elevation in **vitamin B12** levels can occur in polycythemia vera, often due to increased binding proteins. - This is a well-recognized phenomenon associated with the increased cell turnover in this condition. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 626-627.

Q: Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker?

Oxprenolol. ***Oxprenolol*** - **Oxprenolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker with **intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)**, meaning it blocks both β1 and β2 receptors and partially stimulates them. - Its non-selective action means it affects both the heart (β1) and other organs like the lungs (β2), making it less suitable for patients with respiratory conditions. *Nebivolol* - **Nebivolol** is a highly cardioselective beta-blocker that primarily blocks **β1 receptors** and also has **vasodilatory properties** due to nitric oxide release. - Its high selectivity translates to fewer β2-mediated side effects, such as bronchoconstriction. *Atenolol* - **Atenolol** is a **cardioselective beta-blocker** that predominantly blocks **β1 receptors** at therapeutic doses. - This selectivity makes it a common choice for cardiovascular conditions, reducing the risk of bronchospasm compared to non-selective agents. *Betaxolol* - **Betaxolol** is a **cardioselective beta-blocker** primarily used for the treatment of hypertension and glaucoma. - It selectively blocks **β1 adrenergic receptors**, minimizing effects on the lungs compared to non-selective beta-blockers.

Q: What is the mechanism of metabolism for alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin at high doses?

Zero order kinetics. ***Zero order kinetics*** - This mechanism occurs when the **metabolic enzymes become saturated at high drug concentrations**, leading to a constant amount (not a constant percentage) of drug being eliminated per unit time. - Alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin are examples of drugs that exhibit **saturable metabolism**, transitioning from first-order to zero-order kinetics at higher doses. *First pass kinetics* - This describes the **metabolism of a drug by the liver or gut wall enzymes before it reaches systemic circulation** after oral administration. - While relevant to the oral bioavailability of these drugs, it does not describe the specific mechanism of elimination at high doses. *First order kinetics* - In this mechanism, a **constant fraction or percentage of the drug is eliminated per unit of time**, meaning the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration. - Most drugs follow first-order kinetics at therapeutic doses because metabolizing enzymes are not saturated. *Second order kinetics* - This is a **less common pharmacokinetic model** where the rate of elimination is proportional to the square of the drug concentration or involves two reactants. - It does not typically describe the common elimination patterns of most drugs, including alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin.

Q: Which route of administration undergoes the maximum first pass metabolism?

Oral. ***Oral*** - Drugs administered orally are absorbed from the **gastrointestinal tract** and transported via the **portal vein** directly to the liver, where they undergo significant **first-pass metabolism** before reaching systemic circulation. - This hepatic metabolism can drastically reduce the **bioavailability** of the drug, requiring higher doses or alternative administration routes. *Intra-arterial* - This route delivers drugs directly into an **artery** supplying a target tissue or organ, largely bypassing systemic circulation and initial hepatic metabolism. - It is used for localized effects, such as **chemotherapy** for specific tumors, minimizing systemic exposure. *Rectal* - While a portion of rectally administered drugs may bypass the portal circulation by entering the **inferior and middle rectal veins**, a significant amount can still be absorbed into the superior rectal vein, which drains into the portal system. - This means rectal administration offers only **partial avoidance** of first-pass metabolism, making it less complete than IV or intra-arterial routes for bypassing the liver altogether. *Intravenous* - Drugs administered intravenously are delivered directly into the **systemic circulation**, completely bypassing the gastrointestinal tract and the liver's first-pass metabolism. - This route ensures **100% bioavailability** and rapid onset of action, as the drug immediately reaches its target.

Q: All should be features of a substance to measure GFR, except?

Freely reabsorbed. ***Freely reabsorbed*** - A substance used to measure GFR should **not be reabsorbed** by the kidney tubules. If it were reabsorbed, the amount excreted in the urine would be less than the amount filtered, leading to an **underestimation of GFR**. - The ideal GFR marker is **neither reabsorbed nor secreted**, ensuring that its excretion rate directly reflects the filtration rate. *Freely filtered across the glomerulus membrane* - For a substance to accurately measure GFR, it must be **freely filtered** from the blood into the Bowman's capsule, without any restriction due to its size or charge. - This ensures that its concentration in the glomerular filtrate is the same as in the plasma, allowing for a direct calculation of the filtration rate. *Not secreted by kidney* - An ideal GFR marker should **not be secreted** by the renal tubules, as active secretion would add to the amount excreted in the urine, leading to an **overestimation of GFR**. - This property, along with not being reabsorbed, ensures that the amount of the substance appearing in the urine solely reflects the amount filtered. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there is a definitive feature listed among the choices that is *not* a characteristic of an ideal GFR marker. The ability to be "freely reabsorbed" is a disqualifying trait.

Q: Which of the following stimuli is primarily responsible for triggering the Bezold-Jarisch reflex?

Activation of cardiac C-fiber afferents. ***Activation of cardiac C-fiber afferents*** - The **Bezold-Jarisch reflex** is primarily triggered by stimulation of **cardiac mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors** located in the ventricles, particularly the inferoposterior wall of the left ventricle. - These receptors have **unmyelinated vagal C-fiber afferents** that transmit signals to the medullary cardiovascular centers. - Activation of these afferents leads to the characteristic triad: **bradycardia, hypotension, and vasodilation** via increased parasympathetic activity and withdrawal of sympathetic tone. - Common triggers include vigorous ventricular contraction with decreased filling, certain drugs (veratridine), myocardial ischemia (especially inferior wall MI), and reperfusion. *Decreased venous return* - While **decreased venous return** creates the hemodynamic context (ventricular underfilling) that can lead to vigorous contraction of a relatively empty ventricle, it is not itself the *trigger* of the reflex. - The actual trigger is the activation of the ventricular receptors sensing this abnormal contraction pattern, which then signal via C-fiber afferents. - Decreased venous return alone, without receptor activation, would not produce the reflex. *Parasympathetic withdrawal* - **Parasympathetic withdrawal** would cause tachycardia and is opposite to the Bezold-Jarisch reflex, which involves **increased parasympathetic activity**. - This is a compensatory response seen in other reflexes like the baroreceptor reflex during hypotension. *Increased sympathetic stimulation* - **Increased sympathetic stimulation** produces tachycardia, increased contractility, and vasoconstriction—effects opposite to the Bezold-Jarisch reflex. - The reflex actually causes **sympathetic withdrawal** along with parasympathetic activation.

Q: What is the blood supply of the liver in ml/min/100g?

50-60 ml/min/100g. ***50-60 ml/min/100g*** - The liver receives a substantial blood supply, but when expressed per 100 grams of tissue, the value is around **50-60 mL/min/100g**. This demonstrates the organ's high metabolic demand. - This value represents the total blood flow from both the **hepatic artery** and the **portal vein** per unit weight of liver tissue. *1500-2000 ml/min/100g* - This value is extremely high and does not accurately represent the **blood flow per 100g of liver tissue**. Such a high flow rate would imply an unrealistic perfusion. - While the total blood flow to the liver is large, it's not at this magnitude when normalized to tissue weight. *1000-1500 ml/min/100g* - This range is closer to the **total blood flow to the entire liver** (1000-1800 ml/min), not the blood flow per 100 grams of tissue. - It's crucial to differentiate between total organ flow and flow density (per 100g). *250-300 ml/min/100g* - This value is significantly higher than the actual blood supply per 100g of liver tissue, suggesting an overestimation of the **perfusion density**. - While the liver is highly perfused, this rate is not physiologically accurate when normalized to the tissue weight.

Question 1

Which muscle will be paralyzed when the radial nerve is injured just below the spiral groove?

Accepted Answer

Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

Answer

Extensor Digitorum

Answer

Supinator

Answer

Abductor Pollicis Longus

Question 2

The blood supply to femoral head is mostly by?

Accepted Answer

Profunda femoris

Answer

Lateral epiphyseal artery

Answer

Medial epiphyseal artery

Answer

Artery of ligamentum teres

Question 3

Which of the following statements about Polycythemia vera is false?

Accepted Answer

Increased LAP score

Answer

Increased vitamin B12 levels

Answer

Leukocytosis is present

Answer

Increased platelet count

Question 4

Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker?

Accepted Answer

Oxprenolol

Answer

Nebivolol

Answer

Atenolol

Answer

Betaxolol

Question 5

What is the mechanism of metabolism for alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin at high doses?

Accepted Answer

Zero order kinetics

Answer

First pass kinetics

Answer

First order kinetics

Answer

Second order kinetics

Question 6

Which route of administration undergoes the maximum first pass metabolism?

Accepted Answer

Oral

Answer

Intra-arterial

Answer

Rectal

Answer

Intravenous

Question 7

All should be features of a substance to measure GFR, except?

Accepted Answer

Freely reabsorbed

Answer

Not secreted by kidney

Answer

Freely filtered across the glomerulus membrane

Answer

None of the options

Question 8

Which of the following stimuli is primarily responsible for triggering the Bezold-Jarisch reflex?

Accepted Answer

Activation of cardiac C-fiber afferents

Answer

Parasympathetic withdrawal

Answer

Decreased venous return

Answer

Increased sympathetic stimulation

Question 9

What is the primary function of the 'patch-clamp' technique in electrophysiology?

Accepted Answer

To record ionic currents through single or multiple ion channels

Answer

To record facilitated diffusion

Answer

To record osmotic pressure around semipermeable membrane

Answer

To record RMP

Question 10

What is the blood supply of the liver in ml/min/100g?

Accepted Answer

50-60 ml/min/100g

Answer

1500-2000 ml/min/100g

Answer

1000-1500 ml/min/100g

Answer

250-300 ml/min/100g

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology