NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is NOT present in DNA?

Uracil. ***Uracil*** - **Uracil** is a pyrimidine nitrogenous base that replaces **thymine** in RNA, meaning it is not found in the structure of DNA. - In RNA, uracil pairs with **adenine** through two hydrogen bonds. *Thymine* - **Thymine** is a pyrimidine found in DNA, where it pairs with **adenine**. - It is replaced by **uracil** in RNA. *Cytosine* - **Cytosine** is a pyrimidine that is a fundamental component of both **DNA** and **RNA**. - In DNA, cytosine pairs with **guanine**. *Adenine* - **Adenine** is a purine that is a fundamental component of both **DNA** and **RNA**. - In DNA, adenine pairs with **thymine**, and in RNA, it pairs with **uracil**.

Q: During which sleep stage does bruxism typically occur?

NREM stage 3, 4. ***NREM stage 3, 4*** - **Bruxism**, or teeth grinding, most commonly occurs during **deep sleep stages**, specifically NREM stages 3 and 4 (often grouped as **slow-wave sleep**). - These stages are characterized by **delta waves** on EEG and are the deepest phases of sleep. *NREM stage 1 and 2* - **NREM stage 1** is a transitional stage from wakefulness to sleep, and **NREM stage 2** is a light sleep stage. - While some sleep-related events can occur, **bruxism** is less frequent and severe during these lighter sleep stages compared to deep sleep. *REM* - **REM sleep** is characterized by vivid dreaming, muscle atonia (paralysis), and rapid eye movements. - Due to **muscle atonia**, significant teeth grinding and jaw clenching are generally inhibited during this stage. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because bruxism is a well-documented **sleep disorder** with a known association with specific sleep stages. - Research consistently points to **NREM deep sleep** as the primary period for bruxism activity.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding falciparum malaria is false?

Adequately prevented with chloroquine therapy. ***Adequately prevented with chloroquine therapy*** - This statement is **false** because many strains of *Plasmodium falciparum* are now **resistant to chloroquine**, making it ineffective for prevention or treatment in most endemic areas [1]. - The widespread **drug resistance** of *P. falciparum* to chloroquine means it is no longer considered an adequate preventative measure. *Haemoglobinuria and renal failure* - These are **true** complications of severe *Falciparum malaria*, often termed **"blackwater fever"**, due to massive **intravascular hemolysis** and subsequent **acute kidney injury** [1]. - Renal failure can result from **hemoglobinuria**, **hypovolemia**, and **acidosis** associated with severe infection. *Hypoglycemia* - **Hypoglycemia** is a **true** and life-threatening complication of severe *Falciparum malaria*, particularly in children, pregnant women, and patients treated with **quinine** [1]. - It occurs due to increased **glucose consumption** by parasites and host cells, impaired **gluconeogenesis**, and drug-induced **insulin secretion**. *Cerebral malaria* - **Cerebral malaria** is a **true**, severe, and often fatal neurological complication of *Falciparum malaria*, characterized by **impaired consciousness** or **coma** [1]. - It is caused by **sequestration** of parasitized red blood cells in the **cerebral microvasculature**, leading to **microcirculatory obstruction** and inflammation.

Q: Which condition is primarily associated with tetany?

Hypocalcemia. ***Hypocalcemia*** - **Tetany** is a neuromuscular hyperexcitability state resulting from critically low levels of **ionized calcium** in the extracellular fluid [2]. - Reduced extracellular calcium increases neuronal membrane excitability, leading to spontaneous and repetitive nerve discharges and muscle contractions. *Hypercalcemia* - **Hypercalcemia** refers to elevated calcium levels, which *decreases* neuromuscular excitability. - Symptoms typically involve **fatigue, weakness, constipation, and kidney stones**, rather than tetany [1]. *Hyperparathyroidism* - **Primary hyperparathyroidism** is a common cause of **hypercalcemia** due to increased PTH secretion [3]. - Therefore, it leads to symptoms associated with high calcium, not low calcium and tetany. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **hypocalcemia** is a well-established cause of tetany.

Q: Which type of pelvis is most suitable for childbirth in females?

Gynaecoid. ***Gynaecoid*** - The **gynaecoid pelvis** is considered the classic female pelvis, with an **adequate, rounded inlet** and spacious dimensions that are optimal for vaginal delivery. - It has a wide and deep sacral curve, a wide subpubic angle, and parallel side walls, all facilitating the passage of the fetal head. *Android* - The **android pelvis** is typically male-like, characterized by a **heart-shaped or wedge-shaped inlet** and a narrow subpubic angle. - This shape makes it more difficult for the fetal head to engage and descend, often leading to prolonged labor or necessitating a cesarean section. *Anthropoid* - The **anthropoid pelvis** has an **oval-shaped inlet** that is wider in the anterior-posterior diameter and narrower in the transverse diameter. - While possible for delivery, the narrow transverse diameter can sometimes lead to difficulty with engagement or require a persistent occiput posterior presentation. *Platypelloid* - The **platypelloid pelvis** is characterized by a **flat, transverse oval inlet** and a short anterior-posterior diameter. - This shape is the least common and presents significant challenges for vaginal delivery, as the fetal head may not be able to engage due to the narrow anterior-posterior diameter.

Q: Cataract is caused by all except:

MRI. ***MRI*** - Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) uses powerful **magnetic fields** and radio waves to generate images, which are not known to cause cataracts. - The energy used in MRI is **non-ionizing** and does not directly damage lens proteins. *Ultraviolet radiation* - Prolonged exposure to **UV-B radiation** is a significant risk factor for the development of various types of cataracts, especially cortical and posterior subcapsular cataracts. - UV radiation can cause oxidative damage to lens proteins and lipids, leading to their aggregation and opacification. *Infrared radiation* - Chronic exposure to high levels of **infrared (IR) radiation**, such as that experienced by glassblowers or steelworkers, can lead to "glassblower's cataract" or "heat cataract." - IR radiation causes thermal damage to the lens, particularly the anterior capsule and subcapsular region. *Microwave radiation* - High-intensity **microwave radiation** has been implicated in the formation of cataracts, particularly in occupational exposure scenarios. - It causes thermal effects within the lens due to absorption of energy, leading to protein denaturation and opacification.

Q: Which of the following is not seen in Aschoff bodies?

Polymorphonuclear cells. ***Polymorphonuclear cells*** - **Aschoff bodies** are associated with rheumatic fever and typically contain **lymphocytes and macrophages**, not polymorphonuclear cells [1]. - The presence of **PMNs** would suggest an acute inflammatory response, which is not characteristic of Aschoff bodies. *Giant cells* - **Giant cells**, formed by the fusion of macrophages, can be found within Aschoff bodies. - They are indicative of **chronic inflammation**, presenting in conditions like rheumatic heart disease. *Aschoff cells* - **Aschoff cells** are a specific type of macrophage found within Aschoff bodies and are hallmark features of rheumatic fever [1]. - These cells are derived from activated macrophages and participate in **granulomatous inflammation**. *Fibroblasts* - **Fibroblasts** can also be present in Aschoff bodies, contributing to the **fibrous tissue** formation during the healing process. - They are involved in tissue repair and are found in various inflammatory conditions, including rheumatic fever. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 566.

Q: What is the total score in the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE)?

30. ***Correct: 30*** - The **Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE)** is a 30-point questionnaire used to screen for **cognitive impairment** and monitor changes in cognitive function over time. - The score is calculated by summing points for correct responses across various cognitive domains such as **orientation**, **attention**, **memory**, **language**, and **visuospatial skills**. - This is the **maximum total score** achievable on the MMSE. *Incorrect: 25* - A score of 25 in the MMSE is significantly below the maximum, and depending on age and education, it often suggests **mild cognitive impairment** or early **dementia**. - While 25 is a possible score a patient can achieve, it is not the **maximum total score** for the examination itself. *Incorrect: 32* - The MMSE is standardized to have a maximum score of **30**, so 32 is higher than the possible range for this particular cognitive assessment tool. - No domain in the MMSE allows for a score that would lead to a total of 32 points. *Incorrect: 35* - Like 32, a score of 35 is beyond the **maximum achievable score** on the MMSE. - This indicates a misunderstanding of the MMSE's scoring rubric, as the highest possible score is **30 points**.

Q: Test to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction is:

Nocturnal penile tumescence. ***Nocturnal penile tumescence*** - **Nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT)** testing measures the occurrence and quality of **erections during sleep**. - Healthy men experience erections during REM sleep; their presence suggests a **psychological cause** for erectile dysfunction as the neural pathways for erection are intact. *Pharmacologically induced penile erection therapy* - This involves injecting **vasodilating agents** directly into the penis to induce an erection. - While it can confirm the capacity for erection, it does not differentiate between psychological and organic causes since both types of ED can respond to direct pharmacological intervention. *Sildenafil induced erection* - Sildenafil (Viagra) is a **PDE5 inhibitor** that works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide during sexual stimulation. - An erection induced by sildenafil can occur in both psychological and organic ED as long as there is some capacity for vasodilation, thus it does not differentiate the underlying cause. *Squeeze technique* - The **squeeze technique** is a behavioral therapy used to treat **premature ejaculation**, not erectile dysfunction. - It involves stopping stimulation at the point of impending ejaculation and applying pressure to the penis to reduce arousal.

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT present in DNA?

Accepted Answer

Uracil

Answer

Thymine

Answer

Adenine

Answer

Cytosine

Question 2

Screening for colorectal cancer is recommended when?

Accepted Answer

Early diagnosis can change the disease course due to effective treatment.

Answer

The condition has a low case fatality rate.

Answer

Diagnostic tools are not available.

Answer

There is no effective treatment available.

Question 3

During which sleep stage does bruxism typically occur?

Accepted Answer

NREM stage 3, 4

Answer

REM

Answer

NREM stage 1 and 2

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

Which of the following statements regarding falciparum malaria is false?

Accepted Answer

Adequately prevented with chloroquine therapy

Answer

Haemoglobinuria and renal failure

Answer

Hypoglycemia

Answer

Cerebral malaria

Question 5

Which condition is primarily associated with tetany?

Accepted Answer

Hypocalcemia

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Answer

Hypercalcemia

Question 6

Which type of pelvis is most suitable for childbirth in females?

Accepted Answer

Gynaecoid

Answer

Android

Answer

Anthropoid

Answer

Platypelloid

Question 7

Cataract is caused by all except:

Accepted Answer

MRI

Answer

Ultraviolet radiation

Answer

Infrared radiation

Answer

Microwave radiation

Question 8

Which of the following is not seen in Aschoff bodies?

Accepted Answer

Polymorphonuclear cells

Answer

Aschoff cells

Answer

Fibroblasts

Answer

Giant cells

Question 9

What is the total score in the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE)?

Accepted Answer

30

Answer

25

Answer

32

Answer

35

Question 10

Test to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction is:

Accepted Answer

Nocturnal penile tumescence

Answer

Pharmacologically induced penile erection therapy

Answer

Sildenafil induced erection

Answer

Squeeze technique

NEET-PG 2013

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Dental

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Psychiatry

Surgery