NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: The inducing agent of choice in shock -

Ketamine. **Ketamine** * **Ketamine** is preferred in shock due to its sympathomimetic properties, which maintain or increase blood pressure and heart rate, thus preserving **cardiovascular stability**. * It also has minimal respiratory depression and bronchodilatory effects, making it safer for patients with compromised respiratory function. * The cardiovascular stimulating effects of ketamine helps maintain haemodynamic stability in shocked patients. It maintains cerebral autoregulation and perfusion of vital organs. *Isoflurane* * **Isoflurane** is an inhaled anesthetic that typically causes **dose-dependent myocardial depression** and **vasodilation**, which can worsen hypotension in a shock state. * It can significantly decrease systemic vascular resistance, thereby exacerbating the already compromised cardiovascular status of a shock patient. *Desflurane* * **Desflurane** is an inhaled anesthetic known for its rapid onset and offset but can cause a **significant increase in heart rate and blood pressure** upon rapid concentration changes, which may be detrimental in an unstable patient. * Like isoflurane, it also causes dose-dependent peripheral vasodilation and myocardial depression, which can worsen hypotension in patients in shock. *Thiopentone* * **Thiopentone** is a barbiturate that causes significant **myocardial depression** and **peripheral vasodilation**, leading to a substantial drop in blood pressure. * Its use in shock would further compromise cardiovascular stability and is generally contraindicated due to its potent hemodynamic depressant effects.

Q: Tuberculin test is positive in general population (immunocompetent individuals with no specific risk factors) if induration is?

>10mm. >10mm - For **immunocompetent** individuals without specific risk factors, a tuberculin skin test (TST) induration of **≥10 mm** is considered positive. - This threshold indicates a likely **exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis** and a cellular immune response. *>7mm* - This is not a standard threshold for a positive TST in any risk group. - TST interpretation is based on specific **induration sizes** corresponding to different risk factors. *>5mm* - An induration of **≥5 mm** is considered positive for individuals with compromised immunity, those in close contact with active TB cases, or those with fibrotic changes on chest X-ray. - This lower threshold is used for **high-risk groups** due to their increased susceptibility to developing active tuberculosis. *>2mm* - An induration of **≥2 mm** is not typically used as a positive threshold for the tuberculin test in any established guidelines. - Such a small induration is generally considered **negative** or clinically insignificant.

Q: Surgery of choice in a patient with congenital ptosis with good levator action is:

LPS resection. ***LPS resection*** - **Levator palpebrae superioris (LPS) resection** is the surgery of choice for congenital ptosis with **good levator action** (typically defined as >8-10 mm of levator function). - This procedure directly shortens and strengthens the **levator muscle**, improving eyelid elevation. *Fascia lata sling surgery* - This procedure is indicated for patients with **poor or absent levator function** (typically 10 mm). - It involves resecting a small amount of **Müller's muscle**, **conjunctiva**, and occasionally the **tarsal plate**, but is less effective for moderate-to-severe ptosis. *Müller's resection* - **Müller's muscle resection** is generally reserved for **mild ptosis** (1-2 mm) that responds positively to the **phenylephrine test**. - It primarily addresses ptosis due to sympathetic denervation or mild aponeurotic disinsertion, not significant congenital ptosis with good levator function.

Q: All are used in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis except?

Voiding of urine before sleeping. ***Voiding of urine before sleeping*** - **Voiding before sleep** is a **general hygiene measure and preventive advice** rather than a specific therapeutic intervention for nocturnal enuresis. - While it may reduce bladder volume at bedtime, it does **not address the underlying pathophysiology** of nocturnal enuresis (arousal deficit, nocturnal polyuria, or detrusor overactivity). - It is **routine advice** given to all children, not a targeted treatment modality for curing enuresis. *Imipramine* - **Imipramine**, a tricyclic antidepressant, is an established **pharmacological treatment** for nocturnal enuresis. - Its mechanisms include: **anticholinergic effects** (increasing bladder capacity and functional bladder capacity), **alpha-adrenergic effects** (increasing bladder outlet resistance), and **antidiuretic effects**. - Typical dosing: **25-50 mg at bedtime**, with success rates of 40-60%. *Alarm setup* - **Bed-wetting alarms** are the **first-line behavioral therapy** with the highest long-term cure rates (60-70% success). - Works through **classical conditioning**: the alarm triggers when moisture is detected, training the child to either wake to void or develop nocturnal bladder control. - Requires **8-12 weeks** of consistent use and has the lowest relapse rates among treatments. *Maintenance of calendar of day night wetting* - **Voiding diary/calendar** is an essential **behavioral intervention** for monitoring and managing nocturnal enuresis. - Helps identify patterns, track treatment progress, and provides **positive reinforcement** through visual feedback. - Part of comprehensive behavioral management alongside fluid restriction and scheduled voiding during daytime.

Q: Which is not used in status epilepticus?

Metformin. ***Metformin*** - **Metformin** is an **oral hypoglycemic agent** used to treat **type 2 diabetes mellitus** and has no role in the management of seizures or status epilepticus. - Its primary mechanism involves decreasing **hepatic glucose production** and improving **insulin sensitivity**. *Lorazepam* - **Lorazepam** is a first-line treatment for **status epilepticus** due to its rapid onset of action and efficacy in terminating seizures. - It enhances the effect of **GABA** (gamma-aminobutyric acid) at the GABA-A receptor, leading to neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced excitability. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** is a common second-line agent used in status epilepticus, administered after benzodiazepines, to maintain seizure control. - It works by blocking **voltage-gated sodium channels**, thereby stabilizing neuronal membranes and preventing repetitive firing. *Phenobarbitone* - **Phenobarbitone** (phenobarbital) is an effective antiepileptic drug, often considered as a second or third-line agent in status epilepticus, especially when other treatments fail. - It acts primarily by enhancing the activity of **GABA** at the GABA-A receptor, similar to benzodiazepines, but with a longer duration of action.

Q: Hormone primarily responsible for blood pressure regulation following acute blood loss is:

ADH. ***ADH*** - **Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)**, also known as **vasopressin**, is released in response to decreased blood volume and pressure detected by **baroreceptors**. - Its primary role is to increase water reabsorption in the **renal collecting ducts** and cause **vasoconstriction**, both of which help restore blood volume and pressure. - This makes ADH the key **hormonal mechanism** for BP regulation following acute blood loss. *Aldosterone* - **Aldosterone** is crucial for long-term **blood pressure regulation** by increasing sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys. - While important for volume restoration, its effects are **slower** (hours) and more focused on electrolyte balance rather than immediate BP stabilization after acute blood loss. *ANP* - **Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)** is released in response to **atrial stretch** due to increased blood volume and acts to lower blood pressure. - It promotes **vasodilation** and **sodium/water excretion**, counteracting the body's efforts to raise blood pressure after blood loss. - ANP levels are **suppressed** during hypovolemia. *Epinephrine* - **Epinephrine** increases heart rate and cardiac contractility, and causes vasoconstriction, providing an immediate increase in blood pressure. - However, it's primarily a **catecholamine** (not a classic hormone) part of the **sympathetic nervous system** response, and while it acts immediately, ADH provides the sustained hormonal BP regulation.

Q: Which of the following actions of GH is mediated by IGF-1?

Antilipolysis. ***Antilipolysis*** * **Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)**, stimulated by GH, plays a role in reducing **lipolysis** indirectly. * IGF-1 promotes **anabolic processes** and nutrient storage, which can lead to decreased fat breakdown. *Na+ retention* * **Na+ retention** is more directly influenced by hormones like **aldosterone** and **ADH**, not IGF-1. * While GH can exert some influence on fluid and electrolyte balance, this specific action is not primarily mediated by IGF-1. *decreases insulin* * IGF-1 and GH generally tend to **increase insulin sensitivity** in some tissues or antagonize insulin effects indirectly. * IGF-1's primary metabolic role is not to decrease insulin itself directly. *Lipolysis* * **Growth hormone (GH)** directly promotes **lipolysis**, breaking down fat for energy. * However, the question specifically asks for actions mediated by **IGF-1**, which has an opposite, antilipolytic effect.

Q: Fatal exsanguination occurs most commonly in

Partial transection of an artery. ***Partial transection of an artery*** - A **partially transected artery** is the most dangerous scenario for fatal exsanguination - The vessel walls **cannot retract or undergo effective vasospasm** because they remain tethered - The torn opening remains patent, allowing **continuous and profuse bleeding** - This is a classic surgical principle: **partial arterial injuries bleed more than complete transections** - Without prompt surgical control, this leads to rapid and fatal exsanguination *Complete transection of an artery* - When an artery is completely transected, the vessel ends **retract and go into spasm** - This natural hemostatic mechanism significantly **reduces immediate blood loss** - While still serious and requiring urgent treatment, complete transection is **less likely to cause fatal exsanguination** than partial transection - The retraction and spasm provide temporary hemostasis until definitive repair *Open fracture of the femur and tibia* - Can cause significant bleeding from muscle, soft tissue, and bone - However, the bleeding is typically **not from major arterial injury** unless vessels are directly damaged - Usually controllable with **tourniquets, pressure dressings, and splinting** - Less likely to cause immediate fatal exsanguination compared to major arterial injury *Closed fracture of the femoral shaft* - Can result in substantial internal blood loss (up to **1-1.5 liters** into the thigh compartment) - May cause **hypovolemic shock** requiring transfusion - However, the closed space provides some tamponade effect - Rarely causes immediate **fatal exsanguination** unless associated with other major injuries

Q: Tensile strength of a wound becomes normal after:

Never. ***Never*** - A healed wound, even after complete maturation, only achieves about **80% of the original tissue's tensile strength** - The process of scar formation involves the realignment of collagen fibers and increased cross-linking, but it can **never perfectly replicate** the pre-injury tissue architecture and strength - This is a fundamental principle of wound healing - scar tissue is structurally different from normal tissue *6 months* - By 6 months, a wound's tensile strength has typically reached its **maximum potential** of approximately 80%, but this is still less than 100% of the original tissue's strength - This period marks the end of the significant remodeling phase, where collagen fibers are reorganized and strengthened *4 months* - At 4 months, the wound is still undergoing substantial **remodeling and strengthening**, achieving approximately 70-80% of eventual tensile strength - While considerable strength is gained by this time, further improvements continue for several more months *6 weeks* - At 6 weeks, the wound has achieved about **50-70% of its eventual tensile strength** - This stage is characterized by increased collagen deposition and cross-linking, making the wound clinically strong, but it is far from its maximum or normal strength

Q: Sistrunk operation is for:

Thyroglossal cyst. ***Thyroglossal cyst*** - The **Sistrunk operation** is the definitive surgical procedure for the removal of a **thyroglossal duct cyst**. - This procedure involves excising the cyst along with the central portion of the **hyoid bone** and a core of muscle from the posterior aspect of the hyoid to the foramen cecum to prevent recurrence. *Thyroglossal fistula* - A **thyroglossal fistula** is a complication of a thyroglossal cyst that has ruptured or been surgically incised, leading to a persistent tract to the skin. - While a Sistrunk operation may be performed for a fistula, it is primarily indicated for the *cyst* itself to prevent both recurrence of the cyst and subsequent fistula formation. *Branchial fistula* - A **branchial fistula** is a congenital anomaly resulting from incomplete closure of the branchial arches during embryonic development, leading to an abnormal tract between the neck and the pharynx or skin. - Surgical excision of a branchial fistula is a different procedure from the Sistrunk operation, as its anatomical location and developmental origin are distinct from those of a thyroglossal cyst. *Branchial cyst* - A **branchial cyst** is a congenital neck mass arising from remnants of the branchial arches, typically presenting as a painless, soft, movable lump in the lateral neck. - While also a congenital neck cyst requiring surgical excision, the surgical approach for a branchial cyst does not involve the hyoid bone in the same manner as the Sistrunk operation due to its different embryological origin and location.

Question 1

The inducing agent of choice in shock -

Accepted Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Desflurane

Answer

Thiopentone

Question 2

Tuberculin test is positive in general population (immunocompetent individuals with no specific risk factors) if induration is?

Accepted Answer

>10mm

Answer

>7mm

Answer

>5mm

Answer

>2mm

Question 3

Surgery of choice in a patient with congenital ptosis with good levator action is:

Accepted Answer

LPS resection

Answer

Fascia lata sling surgery

Answer

Fasanella-Servat operation

Answer

Müller's resection

Question 4

All are used in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis except?

Accepted Answer

Voiding of urine before sleeping

Answer

Imipramine

Answer

Alarm setup

Answer

Maintenance of calendar of day night wetting

Question 5

Which is not used in status epilepticus?

Accepted Answer

Metformin

Answer

Lorazepam

Answer

Phenytoin

Answer

Phenobarbitone

Question 6

Hormone primarily responsible for blood pressure regulation following acute blood loss is:

Accepted Answer

ADH

Answer

Aldosterone

Answer

ANP

Answer

Epinephrine

Question 7

Which of the following actions of GH is mediated by IGF-1?

Accepted Answer

Antilipolysis

Answer

Na+ retention

Answer

decreases insulin

Answer

Lipolysis

Question 8

Fatal exsanguination occurs most commonly in

Accepted Answer

Partial transection of an artery

Answer

Closed fracture of the femoral shaft

Answer

Complete transection of an artery

Answer

Open fracture of the femur and tibia

Question 9

Tensile strength of a wound becomes normal after:

Accepted Answer

Never

Answer

6 months

Answer

4 months

Answer

6 weeks

Question 10

Sistrunk operation is for:

Accepted Answer

Thyroglossal cyst

Answer

Thyroglossal fistula

Answer

Branchial fistula

Answer

Branchial cyst

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology

Surgery