NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: What is the anatomical relation of the upper lacrimal punctum with respect to the lower punctum?

Superior. ***Superior*** - The **upper lacrimal punctum** is located slightly **superior** to the lower lacrimal punctum, which is the predominant anatomical relationship. - Additionally, the upper punctum is positioned slightly **lateral** (approximately 0.5-1mm) to the lower punctum, though the superior relationship is more clinically significant. - This arrangement facilitates efficient tear drainage into the lacrimal canaliculi and ultimately to the nasolacrimal duct. *Lateral* - While there is a slight **lateral offset** between the upper and lower puncta, this is not the primary or most significant anatomical relationship. - The **superior-inferior relationship** is the dominant spatial arrangement and is more relevant for clinical examination and cannulation procedures. *No relation* - The upper and lower lacrimal puncta have a precise anatomical relationship as paired openings into the **lacrimal canaliculi**. - They work together as part of the tear drainage system, positioned at the medial aspects of their respective eyelid margins. *Apposed* - The term **apposed** means being in direct contact or immediately adjacent, which does not describe the relationship between the puncta. - They are separated by the medial canthal area and located on different eyelid margins (upper vs. lower), not in direct apposition.

Q: Which of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent?

Anthrax. ***Anthrax*** - **Anthrax**, caused by *Bacillus anthracis*, is classified as a **Category A** bioterrorism agent due to its high mortality rate, ease of dissemination, and potential for major public health impact. - It can manifest as cutaneous, inhalational, gastrointestinal, or injectional forms, with **inhalational anthrax** being the most lethal. *Brucella* - **Brucella** species cause brucellosis, which is classified as a **Category B** bioterrorism agent. - While it can be debilitating, it generally has a lower mortality rate and less public health impact than Category A agents. *Q fever* - **Q fever**, caused by *Coxiella burnetii*, is another **Category B** bioterrorism agent. - It causes a flu-like illness and can have chronic complications but is not as severe or easily disseminated as Category A agents. *Typhus fever* - **Typhus fever**, caused by *Rickettsia prowazekii* (epidemic typhus) or *Rickettsia typhi* (murine typhus), is a **Category B** bioterrorism agent. - It can cause severe illness but is not among the highest-priority agents like anthrax, smallpox, or botulism.

Q: Vertebral compression fracture with intact posterior cortex (hinge fracture pattern) is most commonly seen in:

Basilar skull fracture. ***Basilar skull fracture*** - A vertebral compression fracture with an intact posterior cortex (hinge fracture pattern) describes a specific type of injury seen in the **vertebrae**. While the question implicitly refers to the spine, among the given options, **basilar skull fracture** is the most commonly associated with such a fracture pattern in the context of high-energy trauma affecting the spine and skull base. - This pattern implies that the posterior elements of the vertebra remain intact, acting as a hinge, preventing neurological compromise despite significant anterior compression. *Wrist* - Fractures of the wrist, such as **Colles'** or **Smith's fractures**, are typically seen in falls onto an outstretched hand and do not involve a vertebral compression or hinge fracture pattern. - Wrist fractures involve the distal radius and ulna, not the vertebral column. *Mandible* - **Mandibular fractures** are common facial bone fractures usually resulting from direct trauma to the jaw. - They involve the jawbone and do not present with a vertebral compression or hinge fracture pattern. *C1 vertebra fracture* - A C1 (atlas) vertebra fracture, such as a **Jefferson fracture**, is a burst fracture of the ring of C1. - While it's a vertebral fracture, it typically involves fractures through the anterior and/or posterior arches of C1, distinguishing it from the described simple compression (hinge) pattern seen in a typical vertebral body.

Q: Scalp and face are involved in-

Infantile scabies. ***Infantile scabies*** - In **infants** and young children, scabies can present with widespread lesions, often involving the **head, neck, face, palms, and soles**, unlike in adults. - The immune system in infants is less developed, leading to more generalized and severe manifestations. - This is the characteristic distribution pattern that distinguishes infantile scabies. *Nodular scabies* - Characterized by persistent red-brown **nodules**, typically located in the axillae, groin, and scrotum. - While a variant of scabies, it does not specifically involve the scalp and face as a primary distinguishing feature. - These nodules can persist even after treatment. *Norwegian scabies* - Also called **crusted scabies**, this severe form occurs in immunocompromised patients. - Characterized by **thick, crusted lesions** with millions of mites, highly contagious. - While it can involve extensive body areas including face in immunocompromised hosts, the typical presenting feature is thick crusts, not the predilection for scalp/face seen in infantile scabies. *Adult scabies* - In adults, scabies typically spares the **head and neck** area, affecting interdigital spaces, wrists, elbows, axillae, and groin. - Involvement of the face and scalp is rare in adults, unless they are immunocompromised. - This distribution pattern is the key differentiating feature from infantile scabies.

Q: A witness, who after taking oath, willfully makes a statement which he knows or believes to be false is guilty of offence under section:

193 IPC. ***193 IPC*** - **Section 193 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)** is the substantive offense provision that prescribes **punishment for giving false evidence** in a judicial proceeding. - Making a false statement under oath, knowing it to be false, makes a person **guilty under Section 193 IPC**, which provides for imprisonment up to 7 years and fine. - This is the operative section under which prosecution is initiated for perjury. *191 IPC* - **Section 191 IPC** defines what constitutes "giving false evidence" - it describes the act but does not prescribe punishment. - While the question describes an act that fits Section 191's definition, the person is charged and found guilty under **Section 193**, which is the punishment provision. - Section 191 is a definitional section, not the offense section itself. *192 IPC* - **Section 192 IPC** deals with **fabricating false evidence**, which involves creating or manufacturing evidence (making false entries in documents, causing circumstances to exist, etc.). - This focuses on the act of *fabricating* rather than directly *giving* a false statement under oath in proceedings. *190 IPC* - **Section 190 IPC** deals with **threat of injury** to induce a person to refrain from applying for protection to a public servant. - This section is entirely unrelated to giving false evidence or making false statements under oath.

Q: Magistrate inquest is done in?

Death in psychiatry hospital. ***Death in psychiatry hospital*** - A **magistrate inquest** is **mandatory** under Section 176 CrPC for deaths occurring in **psychiatric hospitals/institutions**, as these are considered deaths in **state custody** or institutional care. - This ensures **judicial oversight** and independent investigation into the cause and circumstances of death of vulnerable individuals under institutional care. - Among all the options, this is the **most specific and universally mandated** scenario requiring magistrate inquest across all jurisdictions in India. *Death by suicide* - While suicide deaths are unnatural and often require magistrate inquest under Section 176 CrPC, the requirement varies by state and circumstances. - In practice, many suicide deaths may initially be investigated by police with magistrate involvement based on specific circumstances or state protocols. - Not as universally mandated as deaths in custody/institutions. *Death in suspicious circumstances* - Deaths in suspicious circumstances typically require investigation, but the type of inquest (police vs magistrate) depends on the specific nature and severity of suspicion. - While magistrate inquest may be ordered, it is not as automatically mandated as deaths in institutional custody. - The investigating authority determines if magistrate involvement is necessary. *Death by accident* - Accidental deaths may require magistrate inquest depending on the circumstances (e.g., railway accidents, factory accidents). - However, not all accidental deaths automatically mandate magistrate inquest. - Deaths in custody or institutional care have **absolute mandatory** requirement, making psychiatric hospital death the most appropriate answer.

Q: Common deformity in Chiari II malformation is -

Syringomyelia. ***Syringomyelia*** - **Syringomyelia** is a common deformity associated with Chiari II malformation, characterized by a **fluid-filled cyst (syrinx)** within the spinal cord. - This cyst can expand and damage the spinal cord, leading to symptoms such as **pain**, **weakness**, and **sensory deficits**. *Hydrocephalus* - While **hydrocephalus** (excess CSF in the brain) is frequently seen with Chiari II malformation, it is a **complication** or associated condition rather than a specific deformity caused by the malformation itself [1]. - It often results from the **obstruction of CSF flow** due to the displacement of hindbrain structures [1]. *Meningo myelocele* - **Meningomyelocele** is a severe form of **spina bifida** where the spinal cord and its coverings protrude through an opening in the spine. - It is often associated with Chiari II malformation, as they share a common developmental origin, but it is a primary **neural tube defect**, not a deformity specifically *caused by* Chiari II. *All of the options* - While all three conditions (syringomyelia, hydrocephalus, and meningomyelocele) are often seen in conjunction with Chiari II malformation, only **syringomyelia** is directly considered a "deformity" or direct consequence resulting from the herniation of brain tissue characteristic of Chiari II. - Hydrocephalus and meningomyelocele are either associated conditions or complications, rather than a direct structural deformity of the brainstem and cerebellum.

Q: Why do eyebrows not grow beyond a certain length?

Anagen phase. **Anagen phase** - The **anagen phase**, or growing phase, is significantly shorter for eyebrow hairs (typically 30-45 days) compared to scalp hair (2-7 years), which limits their maximum length. - The duration of this active growth phase **determines the ultimate length** hair can reach before it transitions to resting and shedding. *Telogen phase* - The **telogen phase** is a **resting phase** where the hair follicle is completely inactive; it does not contribute to the hair's growth or final length. - During this phase, the old hair is shed to make way for new hair growth, but it is not the phase that dictates the maximum length. *Catagen phase* - The **catagen phase** is a **transitional phase** lasting about 2-3 weeks, during which hair growth stops and the hair follicle shrinks. - This phase prepares the hair for resting and shedding but does not directly limit how long the hair grows. *Exogen phase* - The **exogen phase** is when a hair is **shed from the follicle**, often aided by activities like washing or brushing. - This phase is responsible for hair shedding, not for limiting the maximum length hair can attain.

Q: Enhancement in CT contrast is due to -

Iodine. ***Iodine*** - **Iodine-based contrast agents** are commonly used in CT scans to enhance the visualization of blood vessels, organs, and certain lesions due to their **high atomic number** and ability to absorb X-rays. - The degree of enhancement observed on a CT image is directly proportional to the concentration of **iodine** in the tissue or blood. *Gadolinium* - **Gadolinium-based contrast agents** are predominantly used in **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)**, not CT scans. - Gadolinium works by altering the **magnetic properties** of water molecules in tissues, thereby improving MRI signal intensity. *Mercury* - **Mercury** is a highly toxic heavy metal and is **not used as a contrast agent** in any imaging modality due to its severe health risks. - While historically used in some medical applications, it has been replaced by safer alternatives. *Silver* - **Silver** is not used as a contrast agent in medical imaging; it has no suitable properties for enhancing images in CT or other common modalities. - It is known for its **antimicrobial properties** and is sometimes used in wound dressings.

Q: Weber-Ferguson approach is used for?

Maxillectomy. ***Maxillectomy*** - The **Weber-Ferguson approach**, also known as the **lateral rhinotomy approach**, is a standard surgical incision used to access the midface, particularly for procedures involving the maxilla. - It provides excellent exposure for **maxillectomy**, which is the surgical removal of part or all of the maxilla, often performed for tumors of the maxillary sinus or hard palate. *Mastoidectomy* - This procedure involves the surgical removal of diseased mastoid air cells, typically performed for chronic otitis media or cholesteatoma. - The surgical approaches for mastoidectomy usually involve incisions behind the ear (**postauricular** or **endaural**), not the Weber-Ferguson incision. *Myringoplasty* - Myringoplasty is a surgical repair of a perforated eardrum (tympanic membrane). - This procedure is typically performed through the ear canal (**transcanal approach**) or a small incision behind the ear, and does not require a large facial incision like the Weber-Ferguson. *Mandibulectomy* - Mandibulectomy involves the surgical removal of part or all of the mandible (jawbone), often for malignant tumors. - Approaches for mandibulectomy typically involve **transoral**, **submandibular**, or **lip-splitting incisions**, which are distinct from the Weber-Ferguson approach and designed for lower facial access.

Question 1

What is the anatomical relation of the upper lacrimal punctum with respect to the lower punctum?

Accepted Answer

Superior

Answer

Lateral

Answer

No relation

Answer

Apposed

Question 2

Which of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent?

Accepted Answer

Anthrax

Answer

Brucella

Answer

Q fever

Answer

Typhus fever

Question 3

Vertebral compression fracture with intact posterior cortex (hinge fracture pattern) is most commonly seen in:

Accepted Answer

Basilar skull fracture

Answer

Wrist

Answer

Mandible

Answer

C1 vertebra fracture

Question 4

Scalp and face are involved in-

Accepted Answer

Infantile scabies

Answer

Nodular scabies

Answer

Norwegian scabies

Answer

Adult scabies

Question 5

A witness, who after taking oath, willfully makes a statement which he knows or believes to be false is guilty of offence under section:

Accepted Answer

193 IPC

Answer

192 IPC

Answer

191 IPC

Answer

190 IPC

Question 6

Magistrate inquest is done in?

Accepted Answer

Death in psychiatry hospital

Answer

Death by suicide

Answer

Death in suspicious circumstances

Answer

Death by accident

Question 7

Common deformity in Chiari II malformation is -

Accepted Answer

Syringomyelia

Answer

Hydrocephalus

Answer

Meningo myelocele

Answer

All of the options

Question 8

Why do eyebrows not grow beyond a certain length?

Accepted Answer

Anagen phase

Answer

Telogen phase

Answer

Catagen phase

Answer

Exogen phase

Question 9

Enhancement in CT contrast is due to -

Accepted Answer

Iodine

Answer

Gadolinium

Answer

Mercury

Answer

Silver

Question 10

Weber-Ferguson approach is used for?

Accepted Answer

Maxillectomy

Answer

Mastoidectomy

Answer

Myringoplasty

Answer

Mandibulectomy

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Dental

Dermatology

Forensic Medicine

Internal Medicine

Physiology

Radiology

Surgery