Orthopaedics
6 questionsHow is Brodie's abscess classified?
Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?
Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?
What is the most common structural deformity associated with transient synovitis of the hip?
What splint is used in CTEV after correction?
Von-Rosen's sign is positive in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1231: How is Brodie's abscess classified?
- A. Acute osteomyelitis
- B. Subacute osteomyelitis
- C. Septic arthritis
- D. Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess)*** - Brodie's abscess is a **subacute or chronic localized osteomyelitis**, characterized by an intraosseous abscess often surrounded by a thick layer of sclerotic bone. - It represents a **contained infection** within the bone, lacking the widespread inflammatory response seen in acute forms. *Acute osteomyelitis* - Characterized by a **rapid onset** of severe pain, fever, and inflammation, usually within days to weeks of infection. - It involves a **widespread inflammatory process** and potential for bone destruction, differentiated from the contained and indolent nature of Brodie's abscess. *Subacute osteomyelitis* - This term describes an osteomyelitis with a more gradual onset and less severe symptoms than acute osteomyelitis, typically lasting several weeks to a few months. - While Brodie's abscess can present subacutely, it is specifically classified as a **form of chronic osteomyelitis** due to its localized, walled-off nature and prolonged course. *Septic arthritis* - Involves an infection within a **joint space**, leading to inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage. - It is distinct from Brodie's abscess, which is an infection of the **bone tissue itself**, not the joint.
Question 1232: Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?
- A. Type II (Correct Answer)
- B. Type I
- C. Type III
- D. Type IV
Explanation: ***Type II*** - The **Thurston Holland sign** is characteristic of a **Salter-Harris Type II fracture**, often described as a metaphyseal fragment (the "Thurston Holland fragment") remaining attached to the epiphyseal plate. - This fragment typically occurs at the corner of the **metaphysis**, making the fracture line extend obliquely through the physis and then along the metaphysis. *Type I* - A **Salter-Harris Type I fracture** involves a clean horizontal separation through the **growth plate (physis)** without involving the metaphysis or epiphysis. - No metaphyseal fragment is seen in Type I fractures, distinguishing it from the Thurston Holland sign. *Type III* - **Salter-Harris Type III fractures** extend from the **physis into the epiphysis**, creating an intra-articular fracture involving the joint surface. - These fractures do not involve a metaphyseal fragment, as they solely affect the physis and epiphysis. *Type IV* - **Salter-Harris Type IV fractures** involve a fracture line extending through the **epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis**, effectively dividing the bone into three parts. - While complex, Type IV injuries do not specifically describe the characteristic metaphyseal fragment that defines the Thurston Holland sign.
Question 1233: Which of the following is NOT a common fracture in children?
- A. Supracondylar humerus
- B. Fracture of hand (Correct Answer)
- C. Radius-ulna fracture
- D. Lateral condyle humerus
Explanation: ***Fracture of hand*** - While hand fractures can occur in children, they are generally **less common** compared to fractures of the long bones, especially those of the **upper extremity**, due to the types of activities and falls children typically experience. - The small bones of the hand are often better protected or less frequently exposed to severe direct trauma in routine childhood activities that lead to fractures elsewhere. *Lateral condyle humerus* - This is a common and often challenging fracture in children, particularly affecting those aged 6-10 years. - It usually results from a fall on an **outstretched hand**, with the elbow in extension. *Supracondylar humerus* - This is one of the **most common elbow fractures** in children and is typically due to a fall on an **outstretched hand** with the elbow extended or hyperextended. - Its significance lies in the potential for neurovascular complications due to its proximity to vital structures. *Radius-ulna fracture* - **Forearm fractures** involving the radius, ulna, or both are extremely common in children, often resulting from falls onto an **outstretched hand**. - The **distal radius** is a particularly frequent site of fracture in this age group.
Question 1234: What is the most common structural deformity associated with transient synovitis of the hip?
- A. Abduction
- B. Flexion
- C. External rotation
- D. None of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***None of the options:*** - Transient synovitis of the hip is an inflammatory condition that does not inherently cause a **structural deformity** of the hip joint. - While it causes pain and limited range of motion, these are functional rather than structural changes, and the hip joint's **anatomical structure remains intact**. *Abduction* - Abduction is a **movement**, not a structural deformity. Although the hip may be held in a position of slight abduction to relieve pain, this is a postural adaptation, not a permanent structural change. - Hip abduction contractures can occur in various conditions (e.g., neuromuscular disorders) but are not characteristic of transient synovitis. *Flexion* - Similar to abduction, flexion is a **movement**, not a structural deformity. Patients with transient synovitis often hold the hip in a flexed position (along with abduction and external rotation) for comfort to minimize pressure within the joint capsule. - A fixed flexion deformity can be seen in other conditions like septic arthritis or Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, but not typically in transient synovitis. *External rotation* - External rotation is also a **movement**, not a structural deformity. Patients may adopt an externally rotated position of the leg to ease pain and reduce intracapsular pressure. - While certain conditions can cause a fixed external rotation (e.g., slipped capital femoral epiphysis), transient synovitis does not lead to this type of structural change.
Question 1235: What splint is used in CTEV after correction?
- A. Bohler-Brown splint
- B. Thomas splint
- C. Dennis Brown splint (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Dennis Brown splint*** - The **Dennis Brown splint** is specifically designed for maintaining the correction of **clubfoot (CTEV)** in infants to prevent recurrence. - It consists of a bar connecting two shoes that hold the feet in an **external rotation** and **abduction** position. *Bohler-Brown splint* - The **Bohler-Brown splint** is primarily used for the management of **tibial shaft fractures**. - It is a **traction splint** designed to maintain alignment and length of the fractured bone. *Thomas splint* - The **Thomas splint** is typically used for **femoral shaft fractures** to provide traction and reduce muscle spasm. - It is not indicated for the long-term management of clubfoot. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect as the **Dennis Brown splint** is a well-established and a primary splint used for CTEV after correction.
Question 1236: Von-Rosen's sign is positive in which of the following conditions?
- A. Perthe's disease
- B. SCFE
- C. CTEV
- D. Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)*** - **Von-Rosen's sign** is a clinical test used to detect **instability or dislocation** of the hip in newborns, a hallmark of DDH. - The test involves placing the infant **supine with hips flexed to 90 degrees**, then **externally rotating and abducting** the hips while applying gentle longitudinal traction; positive if abduction is limited to **less than 60 degrees**. *Perthe's disease* - This condition involves **avascular necrosis of the femoral head** in children, typically presenting with a limp and hip pain, not congenital instability. - Diagnosis is usually made by X-rays showing **sclerosis and fragmentation** of the femoral head, not by Von-Rosen's sign. *SCFE* - **Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)** is a condition where the femoral head epiphysis displaces from the femoral neck, common in adolescents. - Patients typically present with **hip or knee pain** and a characteristic external rotation of the affected limb, which is not detected by Von-Rosen's sign. *CTEV* - **Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)**, or **clubfoot**, is a deformity of the foot and ankle, involving plantarflexion and inversion. - This condition affects the foot, not the hip, rendering tests for hip instability like Von-Rosen's sign irrelevant.
Pathology
2 questionsWhich of the following statements about chronic osteomyelitis is false?
All are features of Paget's disease except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1231: Which of the following statements about chronic osteomyelitis is false?
- A. Reactive new bone formation
- B. Cloaca is an opening in involucrum
- C. Involucrum is dead bone (Correct Answer)
- D. Sequestrum is hard and dense
Explanation: ***Involucrum is dead bone*** - This statement is false because the **involucrum** is the layer of **new bone formation** that surrounds a segment of necrotic (dead) bone, known as the **sequestrum**, in chronic osteomyelitis [1]. - The involucrum represents the body's attempt to wall off the infection and dead bone, and thus, it is living, *reactive bone*, not dead bone [1]. *Reactive new bone formation* - This statement is true; **reactive new bone formation** occurs around infected or necrotic bone in chronic osteomyelitis, forming the **involucrum** [1]. - This process is a hallmark of the body's response to chronic infection and attempts to contain it. *Cloaca is an opening in involucrum* - This statement is true; a **cloaca** is a **fistulous tract** or opening in the **involucrum** that allows pus and necrotic debris from the infected area to drain to the skin surface. - This drainage is a common clinical sign of chronic osteomyelitis. *Sequestrum is hard and dense* - This statement is true; the **sequestrum** is a piece of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from living bone due to ischemia and infection [1]. - Due to the loss of blood supply and avascular necrosis, it appears **dense, hard, and radiodense** on imaging, representing devitalized bone tissue that is walled off from the body's immune response. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1197-1198.
Question 1232: All are features of Paget's disease except which of the following?
- A. Defect in osteoclasts
- B. Affects only axial skeleton (Correct Answer)
- C. Can lead to hearing loss
- D. Can lead to bone cancer
Explanation: ***Affects only axial skeleton*** - This statement is **FALSE** and therefore the correct answer to this "EXCEPT" question. - Paget's disease **can affect any bone in the body**, including both axial skeleton (spine, skull, pelvis) and appendicular skeleton (femur, tibia, humerus) [1]. - Common sites include: **pelvis (70%), spine, skull, femur, and tibia** [1]. - While it frequently affects axial bones, it is **not exclusive** to them. *Defect in osteoclasts* - This is a TRUE feature of Paget's disease. - The disease is characterized by **abnormal, hyperactive osteoclasts** with increased number of nuclei (up to 100 vs normal 3-5). - These osteoclasts show **excessive bone resorption activity** followed by disorganized bone formation [1]. - The primary defect involves **increased osteoclast activity and sensitivity to RANKL**. *Can lead to hearing loss* - This is a TRUE feature of Paget's disease. - Skull involvement can lead to **compression of cranial nerve VIII** (vestibulocochlear nerve) [1]. - Enlargement and disorganization of temporal bone can cause **conductive or sensorineural hearing loss**. - Occurs in approximately 30-50% of patients with skull involvement. *Can lead to bone cancer* - This is a TRUE feature of Paget's disease. - **Osteosarcoma** develops in approximately **1%** of Paget's disease patients. - Risk is higher in patients with **polyostotic disease** and long-standing involvement. - This is a rare but serious complication with poor prognosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1192-1194.
Radiology
1 questionsIn which condition is the 'Picture frame vertebra' seen?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1231: In which condition is the 'Picture frame vertebra' seen?
- A. Paget disease (Correct Answer)
- B. Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)
- C. Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)
- D. Osteoporosis
Explanation: ***Paget disease*** - The "picture frame vertebra" sign is a classic radiographic finding in **Paget disease**, characterized by **cortical thickening** and sclerosis around the vertebral body circumference, resembling a picture frame. - This appearance is due to the disordered bone remodeling processes (increased osteoclastic bone resorption followed by disorganized osteoblastic new bone formation) characteristic of Paget disease. *Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)* - Osteopetrosis is characterized by **increased bone density** due to defective osteoclast function, leading to bones that are dense but brittle. - It does not typically present with the specific "picture frame" appearance of individual vertebrae, but rather with diffuse sclerosis of bones. *Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)* - Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the **axial skeleton**, causing inflammation and eventual fusion of the vertebrae (leading to a "bamboo spine" appearance). - While it involves the spine, it does not produce the "picture frame" vertebral sign seen in Paget disease. *Osteoporosis* - Osteoporosis is characterized by **reduced bone mass** and microstructural deterioration of bone tissue, leading to increased bone fragility and fracture risk. - Radiographically, it shows **decreased bone density** and possible vertebral compression fractures, which is the opposite of the increased bone density and cortical thickening seen in the "picture frame" sign.
Surgery
1 questionsWhat is considered a poor prognostic indicator in Pott's paraplegia?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1231: What is considered a poor prognostic indicator in Pott's paraplegia?
- A. Healed disease
- B. Chronic disease
- C. Rapid progression of neurological deficits (Correct Answer)
- D. Active disease
Explanation: ***Rapid progression of neurological deficits*** - **Rapid progression** implies severe spinal cord damage occurring quickly, which is less likely to fully recover even with treatment. - This indicates a more aggressive disease process or significant compression that can lead to irreversible neurological impairment. *Healed disease* - **Healed disease** (even if paraplegia existed previously) indicates that the infection is resolved and the destructive process has stopped, allowing for potential neurological recovery or stability. - While residual neurological deficits might remain, the absence of active inflammation improves the long-term prognosis compared to ongoing damage. *Chronic disease* - **Chronic disease** in the context of Pott's paraplegia often refers to established deficits after a prolonged course, but it doesn't necessarily imply ongoing active deterioration. - The chronicity itself, without rapid progression, suggests a more stable state where the damage has already occurred, and further deterioration might be slow or absent. *Active disease* - **Active disease** means the infection is still present and causing bone destruction, which is a concern. - However, if the neurological deficits are not rapidly progressing, there is still a window for treatment to stop the disease and potentially allow for some recovery, distinguishing it from an acute, rapidly deteriorating situation.