NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding rapid induction of anesthesia?

Sellick's maneuver is always required.. ***Sellick's maneuver is always required.*** - **Sellick's maneuver**, or cricoid pressure, is applied to compress the esophagus against the vertebrae, aiming to prevent **gastric regurgitation** and aspiration during rapid sequence intubation (RSI). - While historically considered a standard component of RSI, its routine use has been increasingly questioned due to a lack of strong evidence supporting its efficacy and potential to impede glottic visualization and intubation. It is not "always" required; its application is often at the discretion of the anesthetist based on patient factors and risk assessment. *Pre-oxygenation is mandatory* - **Pre-oxygenation** is a critical step in rapid sequence induction, involving administering 100% oxygen for several minutes prior to induction. - This denitrogenates the functional residual capacity (FRC), creating an oxygen reservoir that extends the safe apnea time, thus preventing **hypoxemia** during the intubation attempt. *Suxamethonium is often used.* - **Suxamethonium** (succinylcholine) is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker primarily used in rapid sequence intubation due to its **ultra-rapid onset** (30-60 seconds) and short duration of action (5-10 minutes). - Its rapid action facilitates quick muscle relaxation for tracheal intubation, which is crucial for minimizing the risk of aspiration in patients with a full stomach or other risk factors. *Mechanical ventilation is typically avoided before intubation.* - During rapid sequence induction, **positive pressure ventilation** with a bag-valve mask is typically avoided before intubation to prevent gastric insufflation. - Gastric insufflation can increase the risk of **regurgitation** and pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents, which is a major concern in patients undergoing RSI.

Q: Which anaesthetic is contraindicated in renal failure?

Methoxyflurane. ***Methoxyflurane*** - Methoxyflurane undergoes significant **metabolism** to produce inorganic **fluoride ions**, which are directly **nephrotoxic**. - This nephrotoxicity can cause **high-output renal failure** with reduced concentrating ability, making it contraindicated in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. *Isoflurane* - Isoflurane is minimally metabolized and produces very low levels of **fluoride ions**, making it generally **safe** for use in patients with renal failure. - Its elimination is primarily via the **lungs**, with very little hepatic metabolism or renal excretion of active compounds. *Desflurane* - Desflurane is also minimally metabolized, similar to isoflurane, and therefore produces negligible amounts of **fluoride ions**. - It is considered a **safe option** for patients with renal impairment due to its predominantly pulmonary elimination and lack of nephrotoxic metabolites. *Halothane* - While halothane can cause **hepatotoxicity**, it is generally **not directly nephrotoxic** in the way methoxyflurane is. - Its metabolism, though more extensive than isoflurane or desflurane, does not produce clinically significant levels of nephrotoxic fluoride ions to contraindicate its use in renal failure.

Q: What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?

Delirium. ***Delirium*** - Ketamine is known to cause **emergence phenomena**, which include **vivid dreams, hallucinations**, and **delirium**, particularly during recovery from anesthesia. - This psychotomimetic effect can be distressing for patients and may necessitate the co-administration of a **benzodiazepine** to mitigate these symptoms. *Increased heart rate* - While ketamine does cause an **increase in heart rate** and **blood pressure** due to sympathetic stimulation, this is often considered a disadvantage but not the *most significant* when compared to the unique cognitive side effects. - This effect can be beneficial in patients with **hemodynamic instability**, but can be problematic in those with **cardiovascular disease**. *Increased ICT* - It is often considered a contraindication in patients with **elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)** as it can potentially increase **cerebral blood flow** and thus ICP. - However, recent studies suggest that in adequately ventilated patients, the effect on ICP may be less pronounced than previously thought, making delirium a more consistent and prominent disadvantage for many patients. *All of the options* - While ketamine can cause an **increased heart rate** and potentially affect **intracranial pressure**, **delirium** and other emergence phenomena are often highlighted as a unique and significant disadvantage because they are highly distressing and difficult to manage. - The psychotomimetic effects are a hallmark side effect that often governs its cautious use without concurrent medication.

Q: Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?

Ketamine. ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is known to increase **intraocular pressure (IOP)**, making it generally avoided in patients with glaucoma or penetrating eye injuries. - This effect is thought to be due to its dissociative properties, causing **nystagmus**, and stimulating extraocular muscles. *Nitrous Oxide* - **Nitrous oxide** by itself has minimal or no direct effect on **intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - However, in cases of an air-filled globe (e.g., after retinal detachment surgery), it can increase IOP by expanding the gas bubble. *Isoflurane* - **Isoflurane**, like most volatile anesthetics, typically **decreases intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This reduction is generally due to its effects on reducing aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow. *Propofol* - **Propofol** is known for its ability to **decrease intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This effect is mediated by a reduction in aqueous humor production and an increase in uveoscleral outflow, making it a favorable choice in ophthalmic surgery.

Q: Which of the following anesthetic agents is most notable for its analgesic properties?

Ketamine. ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is unique among general anesthetics for its significant **analgesic properties**, which stem from its action as an **NMDA receptor antagonist**. - Its ability to provide pain relief makes it useful in scenarios where both **anesthesia** and **analgesia** are desired, such as for painful procedures or in trauma settings. *Propofol* - While **propofol** is a widely used intravenous anesthetic, it lacks intrinsic **analgesic properties**. Its primary effects are **sedation** and **hypnosis**. - Pain during propofol injection is common, and other analgesics are usually co-administered for painful procedures. *Thiopentone* - **Thiopentone** is an ultrashort-acting barbiturate primarily used for **induction of anesthesia** due to its rapid onset and profound hypnotic effects. - It has **no analgesic properties** and can even lower the pain threshold, requiring concurrent administration of analgesics.

Q: Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by?

Ketamine. ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is a unique anesthetic that produces a state of **dissociative anesthesia**, characterized by a trance-like state, analgesia, amnesia, and catalepsy. - This effect is primarily due to its antagonism of the **N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor**. *Etomidate* - **Etomidate** is an intravenous anesthetic characterized by its **cardiovascular stability**, making it suitable for patients with heart conditions. - It works primarily by modulating **GABA-A receptors** but does not produce dissociative anesthesia. *Propofol* - **Propofol** is a widely used intravenous anesthetic known for its **rapid onset and recovery**, and it is often used for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. - Its primary mechanism of action involves enhancing the effects of **GABA-A receptors**, leading to central nervous system depression, but not dissociative anesthesia. *Thiopentone* - **Thiopentone** (Thiopental) is a barbiturate anesthetic that causes rapid loss of consciousness and has been historically used for inducing general anesthesia. - It acts as a **GABA-A receptor agonist**, depressing the central nervous system, but it does not produce the distinct dissociative state seen with ketamine.

Q: Regarding propofol, which one of the following statements is false?

It causes severe vomiting. ***It causes severe vomiting*** - Propofol is actually known for its **antiemetic properties**, meaning it helps *prevent* rather than cause nausea and vomiting. - This makes it a preferred anesthetic for procedures where **postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)** are a concern. *It is used as an intravenous induction agent* - **Propofol** is a widely used **intravenous anesthetic** for the **induction and maintenance of general anesthesia**. - It provides a rapid onset of unconsciousness due to its high lipid solubility. *It is painful on injecting intravenously* - Injection of propofol can often cause **pain at the injection site**, particularly when administered into smaller veins. - This pain can be mitigated by co-administering **lidocaine** or using larger veins. *It has no muscle relaxant property* - Propofol does **not possess intrinsic muscle relaxant properties**; patients require additional neuromuscular blocking agents for surgical relaxation. - It facilitates intubation by causing **loss of consciousness** and **reducing airway reflexes**, but does not directly relax skeletal muscles.

Q: Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?

Desflurane. **Desflurane** - **Desflurane** has the highest **global warming potential (GWP)** among commonly used volatile anesthetics, primarily due to its long atmospheric half-life and potent infrared absorption. - Its environmental impact is also amplified by its high **minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)** and low blood solubility, requiring higher delivered concentrations for anesthesia. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** has a lower GWP compared to desflurane and is less commonly used in modern practice. - While it contributes to the greenhouse effect, its impact is significantly less than that of desflurane due to differences in chemical structure and atmospheric persistence. *Sevoflurane* - **Sevoflurane** has a relatively low GWP and a short atmospheric half-life compared to desflurane, making it a more environmentally friendly option among volatile anesthetics. - Although it still contributes to atmospheric warming, its overall environmental impact is considerably less than desflurane's. *Halothane* - **Halothane** is a potent greenhouse gas but is no longer used in many parts of the world due to concerns about hepatotoxicity and its significant ozone-depleting potential. - While it contributes to atmospheric warming, its current lack of clinical use limits its ongoing contribution to the greenhouse effect compared to currently utilized agents.

Q: A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?

Stage 3C. ***Stage 3C*** - **Bilateral ovarian carcinoma** with **capsule involvement**, **ascites**, and especially **paraaortic lymph node metastases** are defining features of Stage IIIC ovarian cancer. - Involvement of **retroperitoneal lymph nodes**, including paraaortic nodes, automatically upstages the disease to Stage III, irrespective of other abdominal spread. *Stage 1C* - This stage refers to ovarian cancer confined to **one or both ovaries**, with evidence of rupture, capsule involvement, or malignant cells in ascites/peritoneal washings, but **without lymph node involvement**. - The presence of **paraaortic lymphadenopathy** in this patient immediately excludes Stage 1C. *Stage 2C* - Stage 2 ovarian cancer involves one or both ovaries with **pelvic extension** beyond the ovaries, but still **without lymph node involvement**. - The patient's involvement of **paraaortic lymph nodes** goes beyond pelvic extension and therefore excludes Stage 2C. *Stage 4C* - Stage 4 ovarian carcinoma involves **distant metastasis** beyond the peritoneal cavity or distant lymph nodes (e.g., pleural effusion with positive cytology, parenchymal liver/spleen metastasis). - While paraaortic lymphadenopathy indicates advanced disease, it falls within the criteria for Stage 3 due to its location, not Stage 4.

Q: Which of the following statements about radical hysterectomy in stage Ib cervical cancer compared to radiotherapy is false?

It is less complicated than radiotherapy.. ***It is less complicated than radiotherapy.*** - Radical hysterectomy is a **major surgical procedure** with potential complications like **hemorrhage**, infection, **ureteral injury**, and **lymphedema**, which can be significant and life-altering. - Radiotherapy, while having its own set of side effects (e.g., **vaginal stenosis**, bladder/rectal irritation), typically avoids the acute surgical risks and recovery period associated with extensive surgery. *Chance of recurrence is lower with radical hysterectomy.* - For early-stage cervical cancer (Ib1/Ib2), both **radical hysterectomy** and **radiotherapy** provide **comparable outcomes** in terms of recurrence rates. - The choice between therapies often depends on patient factors, surgeon expertise, and pathological findings, but neither consistently demonstrates a significantly lower recurrence rate over the other in large cohorts. *Ovarian function can be preserved.* - In younger patients undergoing **radical hysterectomy**, it is often possible to **preserve the ovaries** by transplanting them or avoiding their removal if not directly involved, thus maintaining **endocrine function**. - **Pelvic radiotherapy**, in contrast, invariably leads to **ovarian radiation** and subsequent **ovarian failure** and menopause. *Chance of survival is higher with radical hysterectomy.* - For early-stage cervical cancer (Ib), **overall survival rates** are generally **equivalent** between radical hysterectomy and primary radiotherapy. - Meta-analyses and large retrospective studies have shown **similar 5-year survival rates** for both treatment modalities when applied appropriately to well-selected patients.

Question 1

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding rapid induction of anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Sellick's maneuver is always required.

Answer

Suxamethonium is often used.

Answer

Mechanical ventilation is typically avoided before intubation.

Answer

Pre-oxygenation is mandatory

Question 2

Which anaesthetic is contraindicated in renal failure?

Accepted Answer

Methoxyflurane

Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Desflurane

Answer

Halothane

Question 3

What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?

Accepted Answer

Delirium

Answer

Increased heart rate

Answer

Increased ICT

Answer

All of the options

Question 4

Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?

Accepted Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Nitrous Oxide

Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Propofol

Question 5

Which of the following anesthetic agents is most notable for its analgesic properties?

Accepted Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Thiopentone

Answer

Propofol

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by?

Accepted Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Etomidate

Answer

Propofol

Answer

Thiopentone

Question 7

Regarding propofol, which one of the following statements is false?

Accepted Answer

It causes severe vomiting

Answer

It is painful on injecting intravenously

Answer

It has no muscle relaxant property

Answer

It is used as an intravenous induction agent

Question 8

Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?

Accepted Answer

Desflurane

Answer

Enflurane

Answer

Sevoflurane

Answer

Halothane

Question 9

A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?

Accepted Answer

Stage 3C

Answer

Stage 1C

Answer

Stage 2C

Answer

Stage 4C

Question 10

Which of the following statements about radical hysterectomy in stage Ib cervical cancer compared to radiotherapy is false?

Accepted Answer

It is less complicated than radiotherapy.

Answer

Chance of recurrence is lower with radical hysterectomy.

Answer

Ovarian function can be preserved.

Answer

Chance of survival is higher with radical hysterectomy.

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology