NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Posterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?

Primary cholesteatoma. ***Primary cholesteatoma*** - A posterosuperior retraction pocket is a common precursor to the development of a **primary cholesteatoma**. - This pocket, formed by **negative pressure** in the middle ear, accumulates **desquamated keratin** and can erode surrounding bone. *SNHL* - While a cholesteatoma can ultimately cause **sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)** due to extensive bone erosion affecting the inner ear, it is a later complication, not the direct outcome of the initial retraction pocket itself. - **SNHL** is more commonly associated with conditions directly damaging the **cochlea or auditory nerve**. *Secondary cholesteatoma* - A **secondary cholesteatoma** typically arises from a perforation in the tympanic membrane where skin migrates into the middle ear, not from an intact retraction pocket. - This condition is also known as a **'migratory'** or **'acquired'** cholesteatoma. *Tympanosclerosis* - **Tympanosclerosis** involves the formation of **hyalinized collagen and calcium deposits** within the tympanic membrane or middle ear mucosa, resulting from chronic inflammation or previous trauma. - It is a **fibrotic healing response** and does not directly result from a retraction pocket, although both can be sequelae of chronic otitis media.

Q: What is the treatment of choice for atticoantral type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)?

Modified radical mastoidectomy. ***Modified radical mastoidectomy*** - The **atticoantral type of CSOM** is characterized by active **cholesteatoma**, which requires surgical removal to prevent further bone erosion and complications. - A **modified radical mastoidectomy** is the treatment of choice as it removes the cholesteatoma and diseased mastoid air cells while aiming to preserve residual hearing. *Antibiotics* - While topical or systemic antibiotics may be used to control acute infections or discharge in CSOM, they do not eradicate **cholesteatoma**. - **Cholesteatoma** is an epidermoid cyst that requires surgical excision, as antibiotics alone cannot resolve it. *Tympanoplasty* - **Tympanoplasty** is primarily performed to reconstruct the tympanic membrane (eardrum) and/or the ossicular chain to restore hearing. - It is typically indicated for the **tubotympanic type of CSOM** (safe type) without cholesteatoma, not for the atticoantral type which involves cholesteatoma. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **modified radical mastoidectomy** is a well-established and necessary treatment for the atticoantral type of CSOM involving cholesteatoma.

Q: What are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?

Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid. ***Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid*** - Chronic otitis media leads to **long-standing inflammation** and **destruction** of the mastoid air cells, resulting in dense, **sclerotic bone** with cavity formation due to bone erosion. - This is the **characteristic X-ray finding** in chronic otitis media, indicating osseous remodeling and bone destruction from persistent infection. - The sclerosis represents reactive bone formation, while cavities form from **coalescence** of destroyed air cells. *Honeycombing of mastoid* - Honeycombing describes a **normal, well-pneumatized mastoid** with numerous small, distinct air cells visible on X-ray. - This appearance indicates a healthy mastoid bone with good aeration and is **inconsistent** with chronic inflammation. - Chronic otitis media causes bone remodeling and sclerosis, **not** preserved pneumatization. *Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells* - This describes **normal mastoid anatomy** where air cells are well-defined and separated by thin, intact bony septa. - In chronic otitis media, these septa are typically **eroded or thickened** by inflammation, leading to loss of distinctness. - The inflammatory process causes destruction and sclerosis, **not** preservation of normal architecture. *Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells* - Increased pneumatization indicates **excessive air cell development**, which is opposite to the changes seen in chronic infection. - Chronic otitis media causes **destruction and sclerosis** of air cells, not increased pneumatization. - This would be seen in normal developmental variants, not chronic inflammatory disease.

Q: Which of the following is a symptom of protein deficiency?

Flaky paint like skin. ***Flaky paint like skin*** - This dermatological manifestation, known as **"flaky paint" dermatosis** or **crazy pavement dermatosis**, is a classic sign of **severe protein-energy malnutrition** (PEM), particularly **kwashiorkor**. - It results from **altered skin keratinization** and **desquamation** due to inadequate protein synthesis, leading to patches of hyperpigmentation and peeling skin that resemble peeling paint. *Glossitis* - **Glossitis**, or inflammation of the tongue, is primarily associated with deficiencies of **B vitamins** (especially B12, folate, niacin, and riboflavin) and **iron deficiency**. - While protein deficiency can broadly affect cell turnover, glossitis is not a primary or specific symptom directly attributable to it. *Nail change* - Various **nail changes** can indicate nutritional deficiencies, but they are more commonly linked to deficiencies in **iron** (e.g., koilonychia or "spoon nails"), **zinc** (e.g., Beau's lines, white spots), or certain **vitamins**. - While chronic malnutrition can impact nail health, there isn't a specific, characteristic nail change solely indicative of protein deficiency. *Cherry like skin* - "Cherry-like skin" is not a recognized dermatological symptom associated with any specific nutritional deficiency in medical literature. - Skin manifestations like **cherry angiomas** are benign vascular proliferations and are generally not linked to nutritional status.

Q: In a patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?

CT angiography. ***CT angiography*** - In a patient with **high clinical suspicion** of pulmonary embolism (PE), CT angiography of the pulmonary arteries is the preferred and often definitive diagnostic test. - It allows for direct visualization of thrombi within the pulmonary arterial tree with high sensitivity and specificity. *D-dimer* - While useful for **ruling out PE** in patients with low or intermediate pre-test probability, a positive D-dimer is non-specific and requires further investigation in high-suspicion cases. - It has a high **negative predictive value** but a low positive predictive value, meaning a normal D-dimer makes PE unlikely, but an elevated one does not confirm it. *Catheter angiography* - This is an **invasive procedure** that is typically reserved for cases where CT angiography is inconclusive or contraindicated, or when interventional treatment is contemplated. - It carries risks such as **bleeding** and **contrast-induced nephropathy**, making it less appropriate as a first-line diagnostic in most situations. *Color Doppler* - Color Doppler ultrasound is primarily used to diagnose **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** in the lower extremities, which is a common source of PE. - It is **not used to directly diagnose PE** in the pulmonary arteries; however, finding a DVT can support the diagnosis of PE indirectly.

Q: In a patient with heart disease, which condition is most commonly associated with left atrial enlargement?

Mitral stenosis. ***Mitral stenosis*** - **Mitral stenosis** leads to an obstruction of blood flow from the **left atrium to the left ventricle**, causing pressure buildup in the left atrium [1]. - This increased pressure over time results in **left atrial enlargement** as the chamber struggles to push blood through the narrowed valve [1]. *Tricuspid regurgitation* - **Tricuspid regurgitation** involves the backflow of blood from the **right ventricle to the right atrium**. - This condition primarily affects the **right side of the heart**, leading to **right atrial enlargement**, not left. *AR* - **Aortic regurgitation (AR)** is the backflow of blood from the **aorta into the left ventricle**. - While AR can cause **left ventricular enlargement** and eventually lead to left atrial dilation, it is not the most common direct cause of *primary* left atrial enlargement compared to mitral stenosis [2]. *None of the options* - **Mitral stenosis** is a well-established cause of significant left atrial enlargement due to the direct pressure overload it imposes on the left atrium [1].

Q: Commonest variety of compound presentation is?

Head with hand. ***Head with hand*** - This is the **most frequent type** of compound presentation, where a fetal extremity (typically a hand) prolapses alongside the fetal head into the maternal pelvis. - It occurs due to factors that prevent the fetal head from snugly filling the pelvis, such as **cephalopelvic disproportion** or a **high fetal station**. *Head with foot* - While possible, the presentation of the **head with a foot** is less common than with a hand. - A foot alongside the head often suggests a more complex presentation or potential issues with fetal lie or attitude. *Head with both foot* - The simultaneous presentation of the **head with both feet** is exceedingly rare. - This scenario would indicate a profound degree of space for fetal extremities to descend alongside the head, possibly in cases of extreme prematurity or pelvic relaxation. *Head, hand & foot* - The combined presentation of the **head, a hand, and a foot** is extremely uncommon. - Such a complex presentation would suggest significant fetal mobility in a large pelvic space, making it a very rare occurrence in clinical practice.

Q: Calcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?

Thyroid carcinoma. ***Thyroid carcinoma*** - **Papillary** and **medullary thyroid carcinomas** can produce **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - In **papillary thyroid cancer**, calcification occurs due to **psammoma bodies** (concentrically laminated calcified structures). - In **medullary thyroid cancer**, calcification can occur through **dystrophic calcification** within the tumor tissue. - Other common causes of calcified lung metastases include **osteosarcoma** and **chondrosarcoma**. *Pancreatic carcinoma* - Pancreatic carcinoma rarely causes **calcified pulmonary metastases**; metastatic lesions are typically **non-calcified**. - Metastases are more commonly found in the **liver** and **peritoneum**. - Primary pancreatic tumors may show calcification, but metastases usually do not. *Endometrial carcinoma* - Endometrial carcinoma metastases to the lungs are usually **non-calcified** and appear as **soft tissue nodules**. - While it can metastasize to the lungs, **calcification** is not a typical feature of its pulmonary spread. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **thyroid carcinoma** (particularly papillary type) is a well-recognized cause of **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - Among epithelial malignancies, thyroid carcinoma is one of the classic causes of this finding.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a typical differential diagnosis for a solitary pulmonary nodule?

Mycetoma. ***Mycetoma*** - A mycetoma is a **fungal infection** that typically affects subcutaneous tissues, skin, and bone, forming granulomas and sinuses. It is not typically seen as a solitary pulmonary nodule. - While pulmonary fungal infections can occur, a mycetoma in the lung typically presents as a **fungus ball (aspergilloma)** within a pre-existing cavity, rather than a solitary, solid nodule. *Tuberculoma* - A tuberculoma is a **granuloma** caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which can present as a well-defined, solitary pulmonary nodule or mass on imaging. - It represents a contained form of tuberculosis and is a common differential for a solitary pulmonary nodule, especially in endemic areas. *Hamartoma* - A hamartoma is a **benign tumor-like malformation** composed of normal tissues (like cartilage, fat, and muscle) that are disorganized. - It is one of the most common benign causes of a solitary pulmonary nodule. *Bronchogenic carcinoma* - Bronchogenic carcinoma, including adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and large cell carcinoma, is the most significant concern when evaluating a solitary pulmonary nodule. - It is a primary **malignant lung tumor** and represents a crucial differential diagnosis due to its poor prognosis if not detected and treated early.

Q: Air bronchogram on chest X-ray denotes -

Intrapulmonary lesion. ***Intrapulmonary lesion*** - An **air bronchogram** indicates that the air-filled bronchi are surrounded by consolidated or fluid-filled alveoli, making the bronchi visible against the opacified lung parenchyma. - This pattern is a strong sign of a process **within the lung tissue itself**, such as pneumonia, pulmonary edema, or malignancy. *Extrapulmonary lesion* - **Extrapulmonary lesions**, such as pleural effusions or masses originating from the chest wall, typically displace or compress the lung and bronchi, rather than filling the alveoli around them. - They usually do **not produce an air bronchogram** because the air in the bronchi is not juxtaposed against diseased lung parenchyma. *Intrathoracic lesion* - This is a broad term that includes all lesions within the thoracic cavity, both intrapulmonary and extrapulmonary. - While an air bronchogram is an intrathoracic finding, it specifically points to an **intrapulmonary process**, not just any intrathoracic lesion. *Extrathoracic lesion* - **Extrathoracic lesions** are located outside the chest cavity and would not manifest as an air bronchogram on a chest X-ray. - This option is **completely unrelated** to the interpretation of an air bronchogram.

Question 1

Posterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?

Accepted Answer

Primary cholesteatoma

Answer

SNHL

Answer

Secondary cholesteatoma

Answer

Tympanosclerosis

Question 2

What is the treatment of choice for atticoantral type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)?

Accepted Answer

Modified radical mastoidectomy

Answer

Tympanoplasty

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Antibiotics

Question 3

What are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?

Accepted Answer

Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid

Answer

Honeycombing of mastoid

Answer

Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells

Answer

Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells

Question 4

Which of the following is a symptom of protein deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Flaky paint like skin

Answer

Cherry like skin

Answer

Glossitis

Answer

Nail change

Question 5

In a patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?

Accepted Answer

CT angiography

Answer

D-dimer

Answer

Catheter angiography

Answer

Color Doppler

Question 6

In a patient with heart disease, which condition is most commonly associated with left atrial enlargement?

Accepted Answer

Mitral stenosis

Answer

Tricuspid regurgitation

Answer

AR

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

Commonest variety of compound presentation is?

Accepted Answer

Head with hand

Answer

Head with both feet

Answer

Head, hand & feet

Answer

Head with feet

Question 8

Calcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Thyroid carcinoma

Answer

Pancreatic carcinoma

Answer

Endometrial carcinoma

Answer

None of the options

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a typical differential diagnosis for a solitary pulmonary nodule?

Accepted Answer

Mycetoma

Answer

Tuberculoma

Answer

Hamartoma

Answer

Bronchogenic carcinoma

Question 10

Air bronchogram on chest X-ray denotes -

Accepted Answer

Intrapulmonary lesion

Answer

Extrapulmonary lesion

Answer

Intrathoracic lesion

Answer

Extrathoracic lesion

NEET-PG 2013

ENT

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Radiology