In which condition is pannus formation typically observed?
All of the following are features of juvenile CML except which of the following?
What is the most common type of degeneration observed in uterine fibroids?
The immunoglobulin most commonly involved in Multiple Myeloma is:
Which of the following translocations is not associated with Down syndrome?
Sequestrum is best defined as
Which of the following is a feature not typically associated with Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Lendrum's stain is done for:
Rokitansky protuberances are seen in -
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: In which condition is pannus formation typically observed?
- A. RA (Correct Answer)
- B. Osteoarthritis (OA)
- C. Gout (Gouty Arthritis)
- D. Psoriatic Arthritis (PsA)
Explanation: ***RA*** - **Pannus** is a characteristic feature of **rheumatoid arthritis**, representing an aggressive, hyperplastic synovial tissue that invades and destroys cartilage and bone [1], [2]. - This destructive granulation tissue primarily consists of fibroblasts, macrophages, and inflammatory cells, contributing to joint erosion [1]. *Osteoarthritis (OA)* - While **osteophytes** (bone spurs) and **cartilage degradation** are hallmarks of OA, **pannus formation** is not seen. - OA involves breakdown of articular cartilage due to mechanical stress and biochemical changes, not synovial invasion. *Gout (Gouty Arthritis)* - Gout is characterized by the deposition of **monosodium urate crystals** in joints, leading to acute inflammation [4]. - The formation of **tophi** (urate crystal deposits) is typical, but not **pannus** [4]. *Psoriatic Arthritis (PsA)* - PsA can cause joint inflammation and erosion similar to RA but does not typically involve the extensive **pannus formation** characteristic of RA [3]. - Specific features of PsA include **enthesitis**, dactylitis and involvement of **DIP joints** [3]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 677-678. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1212. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1214-1215. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1218.
Question 62: All of the following are features of juvenile CML except which of the following?
- A. Fetal Hb is increased
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Thrombocytopenia
- D. Philadelphia chromosome is positive (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Philadelphia chromosome is positive*** - **Juvenile Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (JCML)**, now known as **Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia (CMML)** of childhood, is characterized by the **absence** of the **Philadelphia chromosome (Ph chromosome)**. - The Ph chromosome, a t(9;22)(q34;q11) translocation forming the **BCR-ABL1 fusion gene**, is the hallmark of adult Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), but not JCML. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) is a common feature in JCML due to ineffective hematopoiesis and bone marrow infiltration. - This contrasts with adult CML, where **thrombocytosis** (high platelet count) is more characteristic of the chronic phase. *Fetal Hb is increased* - An **increased level of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** is a characteristic laboratory finding in children with JCML. - This elevation is related to the dysregulated hematopoiesis and is a useful diagnostic marker. *Lymphadenopathy* - **Lymphadenopathy** (enlarged lymph nodes) is a frequent clinical manifestation in JCML, reflecting the widespread infiltration of monocytic cells. - This is part of the systemic involvement seen in this aggressive myeloproliferative disorder.
Question 63: What is the most common type of degeneration observed in uterine fibroids?
- A. Calcareous
- B. Hyaline (Correct Answer)
- C. Red
- D. Cystic
Explanation: ***Hyaline*** - **Hyaline degeneration** is the most frequent type of degeneration in uterine fibroids, occurring in about **60% of cases** [1]. - It involves the replacement of smooth muscle and connective tissue with **acellular, glassy, eosinophilic hyaline material** [1]. *Calcareous* - **Calcareous degeneration** (calcification) occurs when hyaline degeneration calcifies, typically seen in **postmenopausal women** or older fibroids. - While it can occur, it is a **secondary change** following hyaline degeneration rather than the primary and most common form. *Red* - **Red degeneration** (carneous degeneration) is acute, often occurring during **pregnancy** due to rapid growth and hemorrhagic infarction. - It presents with **acute pain** and is less common than hyaline degeneration. *Cystic* - **Cystic degeneration** is characterized by liquefaction within the fibroid, leading to the formation of **cysts**. - This typically results from advanced **hyaline degeneration** and is less common than hyaline degeneration itself. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1024-1025.
Question 64: The immunoglobulin most commonly involved in Multiple Myeloma is:
- A. IgG (Correct Answer)
- B. IgM
- C. IgA
- D. IgD
Explanation: ***IgG*** - In Multiple Myeloma, the most commonly involved immunoglobulin is **IgG**, which is often produced in excess by malignant plasma cells [1][2]. - The presence of **monoclonal IgG** in serum is a key indicator of this malignancy, evident in diagnostic tests like serum protein electrophoresis. *IgM* - While **elevated IgM** levels can occur in other conditions like Waldenström's macroglobulinemia, it is not typically associated with Multiple Myeloma [2]. - IgM is produced by a different type of plasma cell and does not reflect the classic presentation of Multiple Myeloma. *IgA* - Although **IgA** can be involved in some cases of Multiple Myeloma, it is much less common than IgG [1][2]. - Patients with predominately **IgA Multiple Myeloma** are relatively rare compared to those with IgG. *IgD* - **IgD** myeloma is a very rare type of Multiple Myeloma, accounting for less than 2% of cases [1][2]. - It is not typically associated with the classic symptoms and conditions that characterize the more common IgG or IgA forms. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 608-609. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 616-617.
Question 65: Which of the following translocations is not associated with Down syndrome?
- A. t(21;21)
- B. t(14;21)
- C. t(15;21)
- D. t(11;14) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***t (11: 14)*** - The **t(11;14) translocation** is commonly associated with **mantle cell lymphoma**, a B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and is not a cause of Down syndrome. - This translocation leads to the overexpression of the **cyclin D1 gene**, located on chromosome 11, which promotes cell growth and proliferation. *t (14; 21)* - This is a common **Robertsonian translocation** involving chromosomes 14 and 21, which results in an extra copy of chromosome 21 material [1]. - Individuals with this translocation can have **Down syndrome** because their cells end up with the equivalent of three copies of chromosome 21 [1]. *t (21; 21)* - This translocation is another type of **Robertsonian translocation** where two chromosome 21s fuse. - This specific translocation is rare and results in an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to **Down syndrome** with a high recurrence risk in offspring. *t (15: 21)* - This is a **Robertsonian translocation** involving chromosomes 15 and 21, resulting in an extra copy of chromosome 21 material. - This translocation is a known cause of **Down syndrome** due to the dosage imbalance of genes on chromosome 21 [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 169-172.
Question 66: Sequestrum is best defined as
- A. A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue (Correct Answer)
- B. A piece of dead bone without surrounding infection
- C. A piece of bone with compromised blood supply
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue*** * A sequestrum is a fragment of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from the surrounding living bone in the context of **chronic osteomyelitis**. * The dead bone is typically surrounded by **infected granulation tissue and pus**, making it the classic definition taught in the context of bone infections. * The sequestrum acts as a **nidus for persistent infection**, as antibiotics cannot penetrate the avascular dead bone, making surgical removal often necessary. *A piece of dead bone without surrounding infection* * While a sequestrum is fundamentally dead bone, in clinical practice and standard teaching, it is **intrinsically associated with infection** in osteomyelitis. * The phrase "without surrounding infection" makes this option incorrect, as the classic sequestrum occurs in the **inflammatory milieu of chronic osteomyelitis**. *A piece of bone with compromised blood supply* * This describes **ischemic or avascular bone**, which is the **initial pathological event** that leads to bone death. * However, this is not the definition of sequestrum itself—the sequestrum is the **end result** (dead bone fragment) rather than bone with compromised vascularity. * A sequestrum has **no blood supply** (completely avascular), not merely compromised supply. *None of the options* * This is incorrect because the first option accurately captures the **standard definition of sequestrum** as taught in the context of chronic osteomyelitis in medical education.
Question 67: Which of the following is a feature not typically associated with Hereditary Spherocytosis?
- A. Gall stones
- B. Direct Coombs Positive (Correct Answer)
- C. Splenomegaly
- D. Increased Osmotic Fragility
Explanation: ***Direct Coomb's Positive*** - In Hereditary Spherocytosis, the **Coomb's test** is typically **negative**, indicating that hemolysis is not due to autoimmune factors. - Presence of **spherocytes** on the blood smear and increased fragility are hallmark findings, not antibodies against red cells [1]. *Splenomegaly* - **Splenomegaly** is common in Hereditary Spherocytosis as the spleen actively removes abnormal spherocytes from circulation [1]. - It can lead to **hypersplenism**, with resultant anemia and thrombocytopenia. *Increased Osmotic Fragility* - Increased osmotic fragility is a key feature of Hereditary Spherocytosis, as red blood cells are less able to withstand hypotonic solutions [1]. - This results from a defect in the red cell membrane, causing spherocyte shape and fragility. *Gall stones* - Patients may develop **gallstones** due to increased bilirubin from the breakdown of spherocytes, leading to **bilirubin stones** [1]. - Gallstones are a common complication due to chronic hemolysis. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 597-598.
Question 68: Lendrum's stain is done for:
- A. Air embolism
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Fat embolism
- D. Amniotic fluid embolism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Amniotic fluid embolism*** - **Lendrum's stain** (MSB - Martius Scarlet Blue) is specifically used to identify **fibrin**, **mucin**, and **squamous cells** in the pulmonary vasculature, which are characteristic findings in amniotic fluid embolism. [1] - This stain excellently demonstrates **fibrin** (stains red) and helps visualize components of amniotic fluid that embolize to the mother's lungs, leading to a severe, often fatal, obstetric emergency. [1] - Lendrum's method is particularly valuable in forensic pathology and autopsy diagnosis of this condition. *Air embolism* - Air embolism diagnosis relies on identifying **air bubbles** in the cardiovascular system, often confirmed by imaging studies or direct visualization during autopsy. [1] - Special stains are not typically used for direct detection of air in tissue sections. *Pulmonary embolism* - Pulmonary embolism, typically caused by a **blood clot**, is diagnosed by identifying **fibrin** and **red blood cells** within pulmonary arteries, often with stains like hematoxylin and eosin (H&E). [1] - While Lendrum's stain can demonstrate fibrin, it is specifically employed when amniotic fluid embolism is suspected, not for routine thromboembolic disease. *Fat embolism* - **Fat embolism** is diagnosed by demonstrating **fat globules** in the pulmonary microvasculature using **fat stains** like **Oil Red O** or **Sudan Black**, usually on frozen sections. - Lendrum's stain does not specifically highlight fat emboli. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 322-324.
Question 69: Rokitansky protuberances are seen in -
- A. Papillary carcinoma
- B. Epidermoid cyst
- C. Teratoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Mucinous carcinoma
Explanation: ***Teratoma*** - **Rokitansky protuberance** (mural nodule or dermoid plug) is a raised solid area found within a **mature cystic teratoma**, particularly in the ovary [1]. - It often contains various tissues derived from the three germ layers such as **hair**, **sebaceous glands**, bone, and teeth [3]. *Papillary carcinoma* - Characterized by **papillary projections** formed by tumor cells, often seen in thyroid, kidney, or ovary. - While it can have protuberances, these are **composed of malignant cells** and lack the diverse tissue components of a Rokitansky protuberance. *Epidermoid cyst* - A benign cyst lined by **stratified squamous epithelium** and filled with keratin debris, typically located in the skin or skull. - These cysts do not form internal protuberances with heterogeneous tissue types like those seen in teratomas. *Mucinous carcinoma* - A malignant tumor characterized by the production of **mucin**, often affecting the ovary, colon, or breast [2]. - Lesions are typically filled with mucinous material or present as mucinous masses, and do not contain the specific solid Rokitansky protuberance. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, p. 1034. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1033-1034. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Female Genital Tract Disease, pp. 480-481.