NEET-PG 2012 Previous Year Questions Practice Questions

Q: A patient is found to have a melanoma originating in the skin of the left forearm. After removal of the tumor from the forearm, all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed. Which axillary nodes would not be removed?

Apical lymph nodes. ***Apical lymph nodes*** - The **apical lymph nodes** are located **medial** to the **medial border of the pectoralis minor muscle**, at the apex of the axilla (Level III) [2]. - Since the removal was restricted to nodes **lateral** to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor, the apical nodes would **not be removed**. - These nodes receive lymph from all other axillary node groups and drain into the subclavian lymphatic trunk. *Central lymph nodes* - **Central lymph nodes** are located **posterior to (deep to)** the pectoralis minor muscle, within the axillary fat (Level II) [1]. - They lie between the medial and lateral borders of the pectoralis minor and are generally considered to be **lateral** to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor, so they would be removed in this dissection. *Lateral lymph nodes* - **Lateral (humeral) lymph nodes** are found along the **lateral border** of the axilla, following the axillary vein (Level I) [1]. - These nodes drain the majority of the upper limb and are clearly **lateral** to the pectoralis minor muscle, so hese would be included in the dissection. *Pectoral lymph nodes* - **Pectoral (anterior) lymph nodes** lie along the **lower border** of the pectoralis minor muscle and the lateral thoracic vessels (Level I). - They receive lymph from the anterior and lateral thoracic walls and much of the breast. - These nodes are located **lateral** to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor and would be removed as part of the surgical procedure. [Practice more NEET-PG 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Deltoid ligament is attached to all, except which structure?

Medial cuneiform. ***Medial cuneiform*** - The **deltoid ligament** is located on the **medial side of the ankle** and primarily connects the **tibia** to several tarsal bones. It does not attach to the medial cuneiform. - The **medial cuneiform** is a midfoot bone primarily involved in the **tarsometatarsal joint** and is not a direct attachment site for the deltoid ligament. *Medial malleolus* - The **medial malleolus**, the distal end of the **tibia**, serves as the **proximal attachment point** for all four parts of the deltoid ligament. - This strong connection is crucial for **stabilizing the ankle joint** medially. *Navicular bone* - The **tibionavicular part** of the deltoid ligament attaches to the **tuberosity of the navicular bone**. - This attachment helps **limit excessive abduction** and **eversion** of the foot. *Sustentaculum tali* - The **tibiocalcaneal part** of the deltoid ligament attaches to the **sustentaculum tali** on the calcaneus. - This attachment provides significant stability to the **subtalar joint**. [Practice more NEET-PG 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is NOT a key intervention implemented under the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme?

Management of hypertension. ***Management of hypertension*** - While important for overall health, the **management of non-communicable diseases (NCDs)** like hypertension is not a primary, direct focus of the **Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme**. - RCH programs primarily target interventions related to women's reproductive health, safe motherhood, and child survival. *Immunization* - **Immunization** is a cornerstone intervention of the RCH program, crucial for preventing major childhood diseases and improving child survival rates. - It directly contributes to reducing **infant and child mortality** by protecting against vaccine-preventable diseases. *ORS therapy* - **Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) therapy** is a key intervention within the RCH program aimed at reducing child mortality due to diarrheal diseases. - It is effective in treating **dehydration** caused by diarrhea, a common cause of death in young children. *Vitamin A supplementation* - **Vitamin A supplementation** is an essential RCH intervention, particularly for children, to prevent **vitamin A deficiency**. - It plays a vital role in **boosting immunity**, preventing blindness, and reducing the severity of common childhood infections. [Practice more NEET-PG 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Haemoglobin F is raised in which condition?

Juvenile chronic myeloid leukemia. ***Juvenile chronic myeloid leukemia*** - This condition is characterized by a high proportion of **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)**, often exceeding 50%, alongside other typical myeloproliferative features. - The elevated HbF is a distinguishing feature of **juvenile CML** from adult CML, which typically presents with normal or only slightly elevated HbF levels. *Beta-thalassemia major* - While patients with **beta-thalassemia major** can have elevated HbF, it is typically in response to a severe deficiency in beta-globin chain production, leading to compensatory gamma-chain synthesis. - However, the primary genetic defect lies in the beta-globin genes, and the HbF increase is usually not as universally high or definitive as in HPFH or juvenile CML. *Sickle cell disease* - Patients with **sickle cell disease** can have variable levels of HbF, and higher levels are associated with a milder disease course [1]. - HbF acts as a protective factor by inhibiting hemoglobin S polymerization, but the presence of high HbF is not a diagnostic marker in the same way it is for HPFH or juvenile CML [1]. *Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin (HPFH)* - This is a benign condition characterized by the **continued production of high levels of HbF into adulthood** due to genetic mutations that prevent the normal developmental switch from gamma-globin to beta-globin synthesis. - While it features significantly raised HbF, HPFH is typically **asymptomatic** and does not present with the myeloproliferative features seen in juvenile CML. [Practice more NEET-PG 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following statements about Streptococcus is false?

Group A Streptococcus is catalase positive. ***Group A Streptococcus is catalase positive*** - This statement is false because all species of **Streptococcus**, including Group A Streptococcus (GAS), are **catalase-negative**. - The absence of the **catalase enzyme** is a key differentiating feature between streptococci and staphylococci, which are catalase-positive. *Group B causes neonatal meningitis* - **Group B Streptococcus (GBS)**, or *Streptococcus agalactiae*, is a well-known cause of **neonatal meningitis** and sepsis. - Infants can acquire GBS during passage through the birth canal from a colonized mother, leading to severe infections. *Group B lives in female genital tract* - GBS is a common commensal organism found in the **lower gastrointestinal** and **female genital tracts** of up to 30% of healthy women. - Its presence in the female genital tract poses a risk for transmission to neonates during childbirth. *Classification by Lancefield based on carbohydrate antigen* - The **Lancefield grouping system** classifies streptococci based on the presence of specific **carbohydrate antigens** in their cell walls. - This serological classification, developed by Rebecca Lancefield, divides streptococci into groups A, B, C, D, F, and G, which helps in identifying different species and their associated pathologies. [Practice more NEET-PG 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Question 1

A patient is found to have a melanoma originating in the skin of the left forearm. After removal of the tumor from the forearm, all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed. Which axillary nodes would not be removed?

Accepted Answer

Apical lymph nodes

Answer

Central lymph nodes

Answer

Lateral lymph nodes

Answer

Pectoral lymph nodes

Question 2

Deltoid ligament is attached to all, except which structure?

Accepted Answer

Medial cuneiform

Answer

Sustentaculum tali

Answer

Navicular bone

Answer

Medial malleolus

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a key intervention implemented under the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme?

Accepted Answer

Management of hypertension

Answer

Immunization

Answer

ORS therapy

Answer

Vitamin A supplementation

Question 4

Haemoglobin F is raised in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Juvenile chronic myeloid leukemia

Answer

Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin (HPFH)

Answer

Beta-thalassemia major

Answer

Sickle cell disease

Question 5

Which of the following statements about Streptococcus is false?

Accepted Answer

Group A Streptococcus is catalase positive

Answer

Group B causes neonatal meningitis

Answer

Group B lives in female genital tract

Answer

Classification by Lancefield based on carbohydrate antigen

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true regarding Wuchereria bancrofti?

Accepted Answer

Tail tip free from nuclei

Answer

Unsheathed

Answer

Non-periodic

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

IUCD lasting for 10 years is a:

Accepted Answer

CuT - 380A

Answer

Nova T

Answer

CuT - 220

Answer

Progestasert

Question 8

Malignancy in pheochromocytoma is indicated by:

Accepted Answer

Metastasis

Answer

Mitotic figures

Answer

Capsular invasion

Answer

Vascular invasion

Question 9

Renal papillary necrosis is almost always associated with one of the following conditions:

Accepted Answer

Analgesic-nephropathy

Answer

Diabetes-mellitus

Answer

Chronic pyelonephritis

Answer

Post streptococcal GN

Question 10

What is the code for mental disorders in the ICD-10 classification?

Accepted Answer

F

Answer

E

Answer

P

Answer

G

NEET-PG 2012

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Psychiatry