NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: In a patient with suspected vitamin B12 deficiency, which condition would result in an abnormal Schilling test?

Intrinsic factor deficiency. ***Intrinsic factor deficiency*** - The Schilling test assesses the absorption of **vitamin B12**. **Intrinsic factor** is crucial for B12 absorption in the ileum. - Deficiency of intrinsic factor, as seen in **pernicious anemia**, directly impairs B12 absorption, leading to an abnormal Schilling test result [1]. *Amylase deficiency* - **Amylase** is an enzyme involved in the digestion of carbohydrates, not vitamin B12 absorption [2]. - Its deficiency would primarily cause carbohydrate malabsorption symptoms, not an abnormal Schilling test. *Pancreatic endocrine insufficiency* - **Pancreatic endocrine function** relates to hormone production (e.g., insulin, glucagon), while exocrine function involves digestive enzymes. - Impairment of endocrine function does not directly affect vitamin B12 absorption or the Schilling test. *Lipase deficiency* - **Lipase** is an enzyme essential for the digestion of fats [2]. - Its deficiency would lead to fat malabsorption (steatorrhea) but would not affect vitamin B12 absorption or the Schilling test results.

Q: Jaw tightness is typically seen in:

Giant cell arteritis (GCA). ***Giant cell arteritis (GCA)*** - **Jaw claudication** or tightness, difficulty chewing, and pain in the jaw are classic symptoms of GCA, resulting from **ischemia of the masticatory muscles**. [1] - This condition is a **large vessel vasculitis** that frequently affects the **temporal arteries** and can lead to blindness if untreated. [1] *Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)* - PAN is a **necrotizing vasculitis** that typically affects **medium-sized arteries**, often sparing the pulmonary circulation. [1] - Common symptoms include **neuropathy**, abdominal pain, and skin lesions (e.g., livedo reticularis), but **jaw tightness is not a typical feature**. *Coarctation of aorta* - This is a **congenital narrowing of the aorta**, leading to symptoms like **upper extremity hypertension**, headache, and claudication in the lower extremities. - **Jaw tightness is not a symptom** associated with coarctation of the aorta. *Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)* - GPA is a **small-vessel vasculitis** characterized by **granulomatous inflammation** involving the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and glomerulonephritis. - Symptoms often include **sinusitis**, lung nodules, and kidney disease, but **jaw claudication is not a characteristic presentation**.

Q: Most common symptom of genitourinary TB

Hematuria. ***Hematuria*** - **Gross or microscopic hematuria** is the most common symptom of genitourinary tuberculosis, often occurring early in the disease course. - It results from the **inflammatory and destructive changes** caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the urinary tract. *Renal colic* - Renal colic is typically associated with **acute obstruction of the ureter**, often by a renal stone. - While TB can cause strictures leading to obstruction, **colic** itself is not the most common initial symptom. *Increased frequency* - Increased urinary frequency is a common symptom in genitourinary TB, especially with **bladder involvement**. - However, it ranks below hematuria in terms of overall prevalence as the *most common* symptom. *Painful micturition* - **Dysuria** or painful micturition is frequently observed in genitourinary TB, particularly with **bladder or urethral inflammation**. - While common, it is generally less prevalent than hematuria as the presenting complaint.

Q: Iris coloboma is most common in which location?

Inferonasal. ***Inferonasal*** - **Iris coloboma** most commonly occurs in the **inferonasal quadrant** (at approximately the **6 o'clock position**) - This location corresponds to the site of the **embryonic fetal fissure** (choroidal fissure), which normally closes during the **5th to 7th week of gestation** - When the fetal fissure fails to close completely, it results in a **keyhole-shaped defect** in the iris, and potentially involves other ocular structures (ciliary body, choroid, retina, optic nerve) along the same inferonasal axis - This is a well-established anatomical pattern seen in **congenital colobomas** *Inferotemporal* - The inferotemporal quadrant is **not the typical location** for iris coloboma - Embryologically, the fetal fissure does not extend into the temporal region, making colobomas in this location extremely rare - Colobomas outside the inferonasal location are usually **atypical colobomas** caused by different mechanisms *Superotemporal* - The superotemporal quadrant is **not associated** with the fetal fissure closure pathway - Colobomas in this location would be considered atypical and not related to embryonic fissure closure defects - This is not a common presentation for congenital iris coloboma *Superonasal* - The superonasal quadrant is also **not part of the fetal fissure pathway** - While superior colobomas can occasionally occur as atypical variants, they do not represent the classic congenital coloboma pattern - The embryological basis for typical coloboma formation does not involve the superior regions of the eye

Q: What is the most common type of dislocation of the elbow joint?

Posterolateral dislocation. ***Posterolateral dislocation*** - This is the **most common type of elbow dislocation**, accounting for over 90% of cases. - The **radius and ulna displace posterior and lateral** relative to the humerus. *Posterior dislocation* - While common, **pure posterior dislocations are less frequent** than posterolateral disruptions. - In a pure posterior dislocation, the **forearm bones move directly backward**, without a significant lateral component. *Posteromedial dislocation* - This is a **less common type of elbow dislocation**, involving the ulna and radius displacing posterior and medial. - Often associated with **more complex soft tissue and bony injuries**. *Lateral dislocation* - **Pure lateral dislocations of the elbow are rare** and usually involve significant disruption of the medial collateral ligament. - It occurs when the **forearm bones move directly lateral** to the humerus.

Q: What is the primary reason for low glucose levels in premature infants?

Decreased glycogen stores. ***Decreased glycogen stores*** - Premature infants have undeveloped livers, leading to significantly **reduced glycogen reserves** at birth compared to full-term infants. - These limited stores are rapidly depleted within hours after birth, leaving the infant vulnerable to **hypoglycemia** as they cannot maintain glucose homeostasis. *Increased brain to body ratio* - While premature infants do have a relatively **larger brain-to-body ratio**, this primarily increases their glucose utilization, rather than causing low glucose directly. - The increased glucose demand is an exacerbating factor for hypoglycemia, but the fundamental issue remains the lack of available glucose to meet this demand. *Decreased action of pyruvate carboxylase* - **Pyruvate carboxylase** is an enzyme crucial for **gluconeogenesis**, the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors. - While immature hepatic enzyme systems in premature infants can contribute to impaired gluconeogenesis, the primary and most immediate reason for initial low glucose levels is the lack of stored glycogen. *None of the options* - Given that a specific and significant reason for low glucose levels in premature infants is clearly identified (decreased glycogen stores), this option is incorrect.

Q: What is correct about febrile seizures

Normal EEG. ***Normal EEG*** - An **electroencephalogram (EEG)** is generally **not recommended** after a simple febrile seizure because these seizures are due to the brain's response to fever, not an underlying epileptic disorder. - The **EEG typically appears normal** following a simple febrile seizure, as there is no intrinsic cerebral pathology to detect. - Simple febrile seizures are benign events that do not require routine EEG investigation. *Focal deficits* - **Focal neurological deficits** (e.g., weakness on one side of the body) are **not characteristic** of **simple febrile seizures** and would suggest a more complex neurological issue or an underlying etiology. - The presence of focal deficits would prompt further investigation for complex febrile seizures or other neurological conditions. *Repeated seizure* - While **recurrence of febrile seizures** is common (about 30-35% of children experience a second seizure), this refers to a **risk factor** for recurrence rather than a defining characteristic of febrile seizures. - Risk factors for recurrence include young age at first seizure, family history of febrile seizures, low fever at onset, and brief duration between fever onset and seizure. *Abnormal EEG* - An **abnormal EEG** in the context of a febrile seizure would raise concerns for an **underlying epileptic syndrome** or other neurological pathology, which is not typical for **simple febrile seizures**. - Routine EEG is not indicated for simple febrile seizures as it is unlikely to show abnormalities and is not predictive of future epilepsy.

Q: A 9-month-old child of a diabetic mother presents with tachypnea and hepatomegaly. Echocardiography shows normal cardiac morphology with asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Which of the following medications is indicated for the management of this child's condition?

Propranolol. ***Propranolol*** - **Propranolol** is a **beta-blocker** that is indicated for **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy** (HCM) in infants, especially those of diabetic mothers. - It works by reducing the **heart rate** and **myocardial contractility**, which decreases the **left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction** caused by the hypertrophied septum. *Digoxin* - **Digoxin** is a **positive inotrope**, meaning it increases the force of myocardial contraction. - This effect would worsen the **outflow tract obstruction** in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and is therefore contraindicated. *Frusemide* - **Frusemide** is a **diuretic** used to manage **fluid overload** and **congestive heart failure**. - While fluid management can be part of heart failure treatment, frusemide does not directly address the underlying **asymmetric septal hypertrophy** or **LVOT obstruction** in this context. *Isoptin* - **Isoptin** (verapamil) is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**. - While some calcium channel blockers can be used in adult hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, verapamil is generally avoided in infants with HCM due to its potential for **negative inotropic effects** and worsening hypotension, especially in the presence of outflow obstruction, and the risk of significant **bradycardia** and **atrioventricular block**.

Q: All of the following are used for treatment of *H. pylori*, except:

Gentamicin. ***Gentamicin*** - **Gentamicin** is an **aminoglycoside antibiotic** primarily used for severe Gram-negative bacterial infections and is **not effective** against *H. pylori*. - Its mechanism of action and **toxicity profile** (ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity) make it unsuitable for typical *H. pylori* eradication regimens. *Clarithromycin* - **Clarithromycin** is a **macrolide antibiotic** frequently used in **triple therapy regimens** for *H. pylori* eradication. - It works by **inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis**, significantly contributing to the eradication of the bacteria. *Metronidazole* - **Metronidazole** is an **antibiotic** and **antiprotozoal agent** commonly included in *H. pylori* **quadruple therapy** or when penicillin allergies are present. - It acts by forming **cytotoxic compounds** that disrupt bacterial DNA, making it effective against anaerobic and microaerophilic bacteria like *H. pylori*. *Amoxicillin* - **Amoxicillin** is a **beta-lactam antibiotic** that is a cornerstone of many *H. pylori* **eradication regimens**, particularly in standard triple therapy. - It works by **inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis**, leading to bacterial lysis.

Q: What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?

Immobilization of spine. ***Immobilization of spine*** - In the context of **isolated cervical spine injury management**, **spinal immobilization** is the primary intervention to prevent further neurological damage. - This is typically achieved using a **cervical collar** and **backboard** to maintain in-line spinal stabilization. - **Note**: In actual trauma scenarios following **ATLS protocols**, airway management and cervical spine immobilization occur **simultaneously** as the first priority (Airway with C-spine protection). *Turn head* - **Turning the head** is absolutely contraindicated as it can exacerbate a cervical spine injury, leading to further compression or damage to the **spinal cord**. - Maintaining a **neutral, in-line position** is critical to avoid neurological deterioration. *Maintain airway* - In comprehensive trauma management per **ATLS guidelines**, **airway management with simultaneous cervical spine protection** is the first priority in the ABC sequence. - Airway is maintained using methods that do not compromise spinal stability, such as a **jaw thrust maneuver** or **endotracheal intubation with manual in-line stabilization**. - The distinction here is that this question focuses on the specific step for **spinal injury management** rather than overall trauma priorities. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **immobilization of the spine** is a definitive priority in managing a suspected cervical spine injury. - Both spinal immobilization and airway management are critical interventions that should occur together in actual practice.

Question 1

In a patient with suspected vitamin B12 deficiency, which condition would result in an abnormal Schilling test?

Accepted Answer

Intrinsic factor deficiency

Answer

Amylase deficiency

Answer

Pancreatic endocrine insufficiency

Answer

Lipase deficiency

Question 2

Jaw tightness is typically seen in:

Accepted Answer

Giant cell arteritis (GCA)

Answer

Coarctation of aorta

Answer

Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

Answer

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)

Question 3

Most common symptom of genitourinary TB

Accepted Answer

Hematuria

Answer

Increased frequency

Answer

Renal colic

Answer

Painful micturition

Question 4

Iris coloboma is most common in which location?

Accepted Answer

Inferonasal

Answer

Superotemporal

Answer

Inferotemporal

Answer

Superonasal

Question 5

What is the most common type of dislocation of the elbow joint?

Accepted Answer

Posterolateral dislocation

Answer

Posterior dislocation

Answer

Posteromedial dislocation

Answer

Lateral dislocation

Question 6

What is the primary reason for low glucose levels in premature infants?

Accepted Answer

Decreased glycogen stores

Answer

Increased brain to body ratio

Answer

Decreased action of pyruvate carboxylase

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

What is correct about febrile seizures

Accepted Answer

Normal EEG

Answer

Focal deficits

Answer

Repeated seizure

Answer

Abnormal EEG

Question 8

A 9-month-old child of a diabetic mother presents with tachypnea and hepatomegaly. Echocardiography shows normal cardiac morphology with asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Which of the following medications is indicated for the management of this child's condition?

Accepted Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Digoxin

Answer

Frusemide

Answer

Isoptin

Question 9

All of the following are used for treatment of *H. pylori*, except:

Accepted Answer

Gentamicin

Answer

Metronidazole

Answer

Amoxicillin

Answer

Clarithromycin

Question 10

What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?

Accepted Answer

Immobilization of spine

Answer

Turn head

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Maintain airway

NEET-PG 2012

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery