NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pemphigus vulgaris?

Subepidermal bulla. ***Subepidermal bulla*** - Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by **intraepidermal bullae** resulting from acantholysis (loss of cohesion between keratinocytes), not subepidermal bullae. - **Subepidermal bullae** are characteristic of conditions like **bullous pemphigoid**, where the split occurs below the epidermis. *Positive Nikolsky’s sign* - The **Nikolsky's sign** is positive in pemphigus vulgaris, indicating the fragility of the skin where gentle lateral pressure causes epidermal shearing. - This sign is a direct result of the **intraepidermal blistering** due to weakened cell-to-cell adhesion. *Oral erosions* - **Oral erosions** are a very common and often the initial manifestation of pemphigus vulgaris, frequently preceding skin lesions. - These painful erosions are persistent and heal slowly, sometimes making eating difficult. *Tzanck smear showing acantholytic cells* - A **Tzanck smear** from a fresh blister in pemphigus vulgaris typically reveals **acantholytic cells**, which are detached, rounded keratinocytes with basophilic cytoplasm. - The presence of acantholytic cells confirms the **loss of intercellular adhesion** within the epidermis, a hallmark of pemphigus.

Q: Anomic aphasia is due to defect in

Temporal occipital lobe. ***Temporal occipital lobe*** - Anomic aphasia, characterized by difficulty recalling **words or names (anomia)**, is most commonly associated with lesions in the **left temporo-occipital region**. - This area is crucial for **semantic processing** and word retrieval. *Left inferior parietal lobe* - Damage to the left inferior parietal lobe is more commonly associated with **conduction aphasia**, characterized by impaired repetition despite fluent speech and good comprehension. - It is also involved in aspects of **reading (alexia)** and **writing (agraphia)**. *Left temporal lobe* - While portions of the left temporal lobe (especially Wernicke's area) are critical for language comprehension, damage primarily to this area typically results in **Wernicke's aphasia**, where speech is fluent but meaningless, and comprehension is severely impaired. - Anomia can be a feature of Wernicke's aphasia, but the primary deficit is comprehension. *Cerebellum* - The cerebellum plays a significant role in **motor control**, balance, and coordination, but it is not directly involved in the **generation or comprehension of language** in the same way as cortical areas. - Damage to the cerebellum might lead to **dysarthria** (speech motor difficulties), but not typical aphasia.

Q: In an EMG/NCV study, which radiculopathy is most closely associated with the H. reflex?

S1 radiculopathy. ***S1 radiculopathy*** - The **H-reflex (Hoffmann reflex)** primarily assesses the integrity of the **S1 nerve root** and the **tibial nerve** pathway. - A diminished or absent H-reflex is a sensitive indicator of **S1 radiculopathy**, often correlating with **Achilles reflex loss** [1]. *L3 radiculopathy* - **L3 radiculopathy** typically affects the **quadriceps muscle** and the **patellar reflex** [1]. - The H-reflex is not a primary diagnostic tool for isolated L3 nerve root involvement. *L4 radiculopathy* - **L4 radiculopathy** usually presents with weakness in **tibialis anterior** and altered sensation over the medial leg/foot [1]. - While it can sometimes impact the patellar reflex, the H-reflex is not the most direct or specific measure for L4 involvement. *L5 radiculopathy* - **L5 radiculopathy** often leads to weakness in **foot dorsiflexion** and **toe extension**, with sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot [1]. - It does not directly involve the reflex arc assessed by the H-reflex.

Q: What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?

Ampulla. ***Ampulla*** - The **ampulla** of the fallopian tube is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **70-80% of all cases**. - Its **wider lumen** and **tortuous path** can delay the ovum's transit, increasing the likelihood of implantation there. *Isthmus* - The **isthmus** is the second most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **12% of cases**. - Pregnancies in this narrow, muscular part of the tube are more prone to **early rupture** due to limited distensibility. *Fimbriae* - **Fimbrial** ectopic pregnancies are rare, accounting for approximately **5% of cases**. - These occur when the fertilized egg implants on the **finger-like projections** at the end of the fallopian tube. *Interstitial/Cornual* - **Interstitial** or **cornual** pregnancies are uncommon but serious, making up about **2-4% of ectopic pregnancies**. - They occur in the portion of the fallopian tube that passes through the **muscular wall of the uterus** and carry a higher risk of hemorrhage due to rich vascularity.

Q: What is the stage of endometrial carcinoma when it involves the cervix?

Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix.. ***Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix*** - According to the **FIGO 2009 staging system** for endometrial carcinoma (applicable at the time of this exam), involvement of the cervix with **stromal invasion** without extending beyond the uterus into the parametrium is classified as **Stage II**. - This stage indicates that the cancer remains within the confines of the uterus but has spread from the uterine corpus to the **cervical stroma**. - **Note:** FIGO staging was updated in 2023, but this question reflects the 2009 criteria used at the time. *Stage 1: Cancer confined to the uterus* - This stage indicates that the cancer is **limited to the uterine corpus (body of the uterus)**, with no spread to the cervix or beyond. - Stage 1 is further subdivided based on the **depth of myometrial invasion**, but the cervix is not involved at this stage. *Stage 3: Cancer has spread beyond the uterus but not beyond the pelvis* - Stage 3 involves spread **beyond the uterus but is still confined to the pelvis**, including parametrial involvement, vaginal or serosal invasion, or pelvic/paraaortic lymph node involvement. - This stage represents more extensive local or regional spread than simply cervical involvement. *Stage 4: Cancer has spread to distant sites* - This is the most advanced stage, indicating that the cancer has spread to **distant organs** (e.g., lungs, bone) or involves the **bladder or bowel mucosa**. - Stage 4 represents a systemic disease rather than localized pelvic spread.

Q: Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis

Four part. ***Four part fracture*** - A **four-part proximal humerus fracture** typically involves displacement of the humeral head, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, and humeral shaft. - This extensive displacement significantly disrupts the **blood supply** to the humeral head, specifically the **arcuate artery** and its branches, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *One part fracture* - A **one-part fracture** indicates that the fracture fragments are minimally displaced (<1 cm or <45° angulation). - The **blood supply** to the humeral head remains largely intact, resulting in a very low risk of avascular necrosis. *Two part fracture* - A **two-part fracture** involves displacement of one major fragment (e.g., surgical neck or tuberosity) from the humeral head. - While there is some disruption, the overall risk of **avascular necrosis** is lower compared to more complex fractures. *Three part fracture* - A **three-part fracture** involves separate displacement of the humeral head and two tuberosities. - This fracture pattern causes more significant disruption to the **vascularity** of the humeral head than two-part fractures but generally less than four-part fractures.

Q: Which of the following statements about Pott's spine is false?

Always heals by chemotherapy. ***Always heals by chemotherapy*** - This statement is false because while **chemotherapy** (anti-tubercular drugs) is the primary treatment for **Pott's disease** (tuberculosis of the spine), healing is not always guaranteed and can sometimes require **surgical intervention** in cases of severe neurological deficit or instability. - The success of treatment depends on early diagnosis, patient compliance, and the severity of the disease, and not all cases resolve completely without residual issues. *Commonest at dorsolumbar junction* - **Pott's spine**, or **vertebral tuberculosis**, most frequently affects the **thoracic** and **lumbar regions**, particularly the **dorsolumbar junction** (T9-L1). - This predilection is attributed to the rich vascular supply and increased mechanical stress in this area. *Back pain is an early symptom* - **Back pain** is often one of the **earliest and most common symptoms** of Pott's spine, due to inflammation and destruction of vertebral bodies. - The pain is typically **localized**, progressive, and may worsen with movement. *There is disc space narrowing on x-ray* - **X-rays** of Pott's spine often show **disc space narrowing** along with vertebral destruction and collapse, differentiating it from pyogenic osteomyelitis where disc spaces might be initially preserved. - This narrowing is a consequence of the tuberculous infection spreading from the vertebral body to the adjacent **intervertebral disc**.

Q: Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the clinical significance of Barrett's esophagus?

Barrett's esophagus is a precancerous condition. ***Predisposes to SCC*** - Barrett's esophagus primarily predisposes individuals to **adenocarcinoma**, not squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) [2][3]. - SCC is associated with other conditions, such as **smoking** and **chronic irritation**, not Barrett's [3]. *Intestinal type is the most common type* - The intestinal type is indeed **common** in Barrett's esophagus, but it's not the only type present [2]. - Barrett's esophagus can also have a **gastric** type, but the intestinal type predominates in adenocarcinoma risk. *Metaplasia of cells* - This condition is defined by **intestinal metaplasia**, where squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium [2]. - Metaplasia is a **hallmark** of Barrett's esophagus and crucial for its diagnosis [2]. *Precancerous condition* - Barrett's esophagus is considered a **precancerous condition** because it increases the risk of transitioning to esophageal adenocarcinoma [1][2]. - The progression from Barrett's to cancer is well-documented in medical literature [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 764-765. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 348-349. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 766-767.

Q: A 24-day-old neonate presents with projectile vomiting and failure to gain weight. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis. ***Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis*** - The classic presentation includes **projectile, non-bilious vomiting** in a neonate around 2-8 weeks old, leading to **failure to thrive**. - An **olive-shaped mass** (hypertrophied pylorus) may be palpable in the epigastrium. *NEC* - **Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)** is an inflammatory disease of the intestine, primarily affecting premature infants. - Symptoms typically include **abdominal distension**, bloody stools, and lethargy, rather than projectile vomiting. *Duodenal atresia* - Presents with **bilious vomiting** within the first 24-48 hours of life due to an obstruction below the ampulla of Vater. - An X-ray would show a **"double bubble" sign**, which is not implied by the provided symptoms. *Hirschsprung's disease* - Characterized by **failure to pass meconium** within the first 24-48 hours and chronic constipation. - Vomiting, if present, is usually **bilious** and associated with abdominal distension, not projectile in nature.

Q: What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?

Biliary atresia. ***Rotor syndrome*** - Characterized by **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a defect in hepatic uptake and storage of bilirubin [1]. - This condition can lead to elevated levels of **direct (conjugated) bilirubin** without significant liver damage. *Crigler Najjar* - This condition primarily causes **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a deficiency of the enzyme **uridine diphosphate glucuronyl transferase** [1]. - It typically presents with **kernicterus** in newborns rather than conjugated bilirubin elevation. *Breast milk jaundice* - Mainly leads to **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to substances in breast milk that inhibit bilirubin conjugation. - Generally occurs in **breastfed infants** after the first week of life, not presenting with increased conjugated bilirubin. *Gilbert syndrome* - This syndrome is associated with **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a genetic defect in bilirubin conjugation [1]. - Typically benign, it does not cause **increased conjugated bilirubin** levels as seen in Rotor syndrome. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, p. 860.

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pemphigus vulgaris?

Accepted Answer

Subepidermal bulla

Answer

Oral erosions

Answer

Tzanck smear showing acantholytic cells

Answer

Positive Nikolsky’s sign

Question 2

Anomic aphasia is due to defect in

Accepted Answer

Temporal occipital lobe

Answer

Left inferior parietal lobe

Answer

Left temporal lobe

Answer

Cerebellum

Question 3

In an EMG/NCV study, which radiculopathy is most closely associated with the H. reflex?

Accepted Answer

S1 radiculopathy

Answer

L3 radiculopathy

Answer

L4 radiculopathy

Answer

L5 radiculopathy

Question 4

What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?

Accepted Answer

Ampulla

Answer

Isthmus

Answer

Fimbriae

Answer

Interstitial/Cornual

Question 5

What is the stage of endometrial carcinoma when it involves the cervix?

Accepted Answer

Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix.

Answer

Stage 1: Cancer confined to the uterus.

Answer

Stage 3: Cancer has spread beyond the uterus but not beyond the pelvis.

Answer

Stage 4: Cancer has spread to distant sites.

Question 6

Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis

Accepted Answer

Four part

Answer

One part

Answer

Two part

Answer

Three part

Question 7

Which of the following statements about Pott's spine is false?

Accepted Answer

Always heals by chemotherapy

Answer

There is disc space narrowing on x-ray

Answer

Back pain is an early symptom

Answer

Commonest at dorsolumbar junction

Question 8

Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the clinical significance of Barrett's esophagus?

Accepted Answer

Barrett's esophagus is a precancerous condition

Answer

Barrett's esophagus involves metaplasia of esophageal cells

Answer

Intestinal type is the most common type

Answer

It does not predispose to SCC but to adenocarcinoma

Question 9

A 24-day-old neonate presents with projectile vomiting and failure to gain weight. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

Answer

NEC

Answer

Duodenal atresia

Answer

Hirschsprung's disease

Question 10

What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?

Accepted Answer

Biliary atresia

Answer

Rotor syndrome

Answer

Crigler Najjar syndrome

Answer

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

NEET-PG 2012

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pediatrics