NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Acute Infective Endocarditis with abscess formation is most commonly associated with

Staphylococcus. ***Staphylococcus*** - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most common cause of **acute infective endocarditis (AIE)** and is particularly virulent, leading to rapid valve destruction and **abscess formation**. - Its ability to adhere to damaged endothelium and produce various toxins contributes to its high pathogenicity and propensity for complicated infections. *Listeria* - **_Listeria monocytogenes_** is a gram-positive rod known to cause meningitis and gastrointestinal infections, especially in immunocompromised individuals. - While it can rarely cause endocarditis, it is not typically associated with the majority of AIE cases or abscess formation. *Streptococcus* - **_Streptococcus_ species**, particularly **_Viridans streptococci_**, are commonly associated with **subacute infective endocarditis (SIE)** on previously damaged valves. - They generally cause a more indolent course and are less frequently linked to rapid valve destruction or abscess formation compared to _Staphylococcus aureus_. *Enterococcus* - **_Enterococcus_ species** are a common cause of endocarditis, especially in older patients, those with healthcare-associated infections, or urinary tract procedures. - While they can cause serious infections, **_Staphylococcus aureus_** remains the predominant pathogen for acute infective endocarditis with abscess formation.

Q: Nuchal translucency is used in

ANC USG. ***ANC USG*** - **Nuchal translucency** measurement is a key component of the **first-trimester antenatal ultrasound** (ANC USG). - It helps in screening for chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** and certain cardiac defects. *Head scan* - A head scan (e.g., CT or MRI of the head) is used to evaluate the **brain** and **skull** for conditions like tumors, strokes, or trauma. - It is not routinely used for fetal screening or nuchal translucency assessment. *MRI neck* - **MRI of the neck** is employed to visualize soft tissues, blood vessels, and bones in the neck region. - Its primary use is in diagnosing conditions like cervical disc herniations, spinal cord compression, or neck masses, not for fetal screening. *Anthropometry* - **Anthropometry** involves the measurement of the human body, such as height, weight, and limb circumference. - While general measurements are taken during pregnancy, anthropometry specifically does not refer to the assessment of nuchal translucency.

Q: Double aortic arch is associated with which syndrome?

DiGeorge syndrome. ***DiGeorge syndrome*** - **DiGeorge syndrome** is caused by a **22q11.2 deletion** affecting the development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, leading to **thymic hypoplasia**, **parathyroid hypoplasia**, and **cardiac anomalies**. - Common cardiac defects include **interrupted aortic arch type B**, **truncus arteriosus**, **tetralogy of Fallot**, and **VSD**. - **Double aortic arch** can occur in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, though it is less common than other cardiac anomalies; however, among the syndromes listed, this represents the most appropriate association. - The question tests recognition that various cardiac arch anomalies, including double aortic arch, may be seen in this genetic syndrome. *CATCH 22 syndrome* - This is an **acronym** for DiGeorge syndrome: **C**ardiac defects, **A**bnormal facies, **T**hymic hypoplasia, **C**left palate, **H**ypocalcemia, and **22q11 deletion**. - It is **essentially the same condition** as DiGeorge syndrome, just using different nomenclature. - While technically correct, "DiGeorge syndrome" is the more standard medical terminology currently used. *Shprintzen syndrome* - **Shprintzen syndrome** (also called **velocardiofacial syndrome or VCFS**) is caused by the **same 22q11.2 deletion** as DiGeorge syndrome. - It represents a **phenotypic variant within the 22q11.2 deletion syndrome spectrum**, with more emphasis on palatal and facial features. - Since it shares the same genetic basis, it can also present with similar cardiac anomalies, but "DiGeorge syndrome" is the more commonly recognized term for this genetic disorder. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because the three syndromes listed above (DiGeorge, CATCH 22, and Shprintzen) all refer to **22q11.2 deletion syndrome** or its variants, which can be associated with various cardiac anomalies including double aortic arch. - Among the listed options, **DiGeorge syndrome** is the most appropriate and widely recognized answer.

Q: A 3-month-old infant presents with an abdominal palpable mass and non-bilious vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. ***Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis*** - The classic presentation includes **projectile non-bilious vomiting** and a palpable **olive-shaped mass** in the epigastrium of an infant typically between 3 weeks and 6 months of age. - The vomiting is non-bilious because the obstruction is proximal to the ampulla of Vater. *Intussusception* - While it can present with an **abdominal mass** and vomiting, the vomiting is often **bilious** and the classic stool is **'currant jelly'**, which is not mentioned here. - It usually presents with sudden onset of severe, **colicky abdominal pain** and occurs more commonly in slightly older infants (6-12 months). *Tracheoesophageal fistula* - This condition presents at birth with symptoms such as **choking, coughing**, and **cyanosis** during feeding. - It usually causes respiratory distress and feeding difficulties from the first days of life, not a palpable abdominal mass and non-bilious vomiting at 3 months. *Duodenal atresia* - This is a congenital obstruction that typically presents with **bilious vomiting** (as the obstruction is distal to the ampulla of Vater) within the first 24-48 hours of life. - Imaging usually shows a **“double bubble” sign** on abdominal X-ray, and an abdominal mass is not typically palpable.

Q: Most common site of extramedullary relapse of ALL in a 6-year-old boy is

CNS (Central Nervous System). ***CNS (Central Nervous System)*** - The **central nervous system** is the **most common site of extramedullary relapse** in pediatric acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), accounting for the majority of extramedullary relapses. - CNS is an immunologically privileged sanctuary site where chemotherapy penetration is limited due to the blood-brain barrier. - CNS relapse presents with symptoms like headache, vomiting, cranial nerve palsies, or signs of increased intracranial pressure and requires intrathecal chemotherapy and cranial irradiation. - Prophylactic CNS therapy is a standard component of ALL treatment protocols to prevent CNS relapse. *Testes* - **Testes** are the **second most common** site of extramedullary relapse and the most common **solid organ** site in boys with ALL. - Like the CNS, testes are immunologically privileged sites with limited chemotherapy penetration. - Testicular relapse presents as painless testicular enlargement (unilateral or bilateral) and requires testicular radiation plus systemic therapy intensification. *Liver* - While **hepatic infiltration** can occur in ALL, the liver is not a common site for **isolated extramedullary relapse**. - Hepatic involvement typically indicates widespread systemic disease rather than a primary relapse site. *Lung* - **Pulmonary involvement** in ALL is rare as an isolated extramedullary relapse site. - Lung findings in ALL patients are more commonly due to infection, leukostasis in hyperleukocytosis, or disseminated disease.

Q: Formication is primarily associated with which condition?

Chronic use of amphetamine. ***Chronic use of amphetamine*** - **Formication** (the sensation of insects crawling under the skin) is a classic symptom of **chronic amphetamine abuse**, often leading to excoriations due to scratching. - This **tactile hallucination** is part of the psychosis that can develop with prolonged high-dose amphetamine use. *Acute amphetamine intoxication* - While acute intoxication can cause psychosis and paranoia, **formication** is more strongly associated with the **chronic effects** and withdrawal of amphetamines. - Acute effects typically include euphoria, increased energy, and hypervigilance, rather than persistent tactile hallucinations. *Alcohol withdrawal* - **Alcohol withdrawal** can cause a range of symptoms including tremors, hallucinations (often visual or auditory), and seizures. - While some tactile disturbances can occur, **formication** is not a primary or characteristic symptom of alcohol withdrawal; **delirium tremens** often features visual or auditory hallucinations. *Cannabis poisoning* - **Cannabis poisoning** (or acute intoxication) typically presents with euphoria, altered perception of time, impaired coordination, and increased appetite. - It does not characteristically cause **formication** or other significant tactile hallucinations.

Q: What is the definition of phobia?

An intense, irrational fear that leads to avoidance. ***An intense, irrational fear that leads to avoidance*** - A phobia is primarily an **intense and persistent fear** reaction that is **irrational** in nature, meaning it is disproportionate to the actual danger posed by the object or situation. - This overwhelming fear invariably leads to **avoidance behavior**, where the individual actively tries to stay away from the feared stimulus. *Fear of specific objects or situations* - While phobias often involve specific objects or situations, this definition alone is insufficient as it doesn't capture the **intensity**, **irrationality**, or the **avoidance** component that are hallmarks of a true phobia. - Many people experience fear of specific things without it reaching the clinical threshold of a phobia, as long as it doesn't cause significant distress or impairment. *A type of anxiety disorder characterized by excessive fear* - This definition is broadly correct but is not the most precise or complete definition of a phobia itself. - While phobias are indeed a type of **anxiety disorder** and involve excessive fear, the key defining features of **irrationality** and **avoidance** are not explicitly stated, nor is the clear distinction from generalized anxiety. *A severe anxiety disorder characterized by irrational fear* - Similar to the previous option, this highlights the **irrational fear** and categorizes it as an **anxiety disorder**. - However, it omits the crucial element of **avoidance**, which is a defining diagnostic criterion and a hallmark behavioral response in phobias, and it also uses the broad term "severe" when the impact can vary.

Q: Which chamber enlargement shows a double right heart border with a wide subcarinal angle?

Left atrium. ***Left atrium*** - A **double right heart border** on a chest X-ray is a classic sign of **left atrial enlargement**, as the enlarged left atrium bulges into the right atrial silhouette. - The **wide subcarinal angle** (angle between the mainstem bronchi) also indicates left atrial enlargement, as the expanding left atrium pushes the bronchi apart. *Left ventricle* - **Left ventricular enlargement** primarily manifests as a **downward and leftward displacement of the apex** and increased cardiac silhouette on the left. - It does not typically cause a double right heart border or widening of the subcarinal angle. *Right atrium* - **Right atrial enlargement** usually presents as a **prominent right heart border** that extends further to the right than normal. - It does not result in a double right heart border or affect the subcarinal angle. *Right ventricle* - **Right ventricular enlargement** leads to an **anterior bowing of the sternum** (in severe cases) and an upward and leftward displacement of the cardiac apex. - It pushes the left ventricle posteriorly and does not produce a double right heart border or a wide subcarinal angle.

Q: Investigation of choice for multiple sclerosis

MRI. ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is the investigation of choice for **multiple sclerosis** due to its superior ability to visualize **demyelinating plaques** in the brain and spinal cord. - It can detect both **new and old lesions**, crucial for diagnosis and monitoring disease progression, according to the **McDonald criteria**. *CT* - **Computed Tomography (CT) scans** are generally less sensitive than MRI in detecting the subtle **demyelinating lesions** characteristic of multiple sclerosis. - While it can sometimes show larger lesions, it often misses smaller or early-stage plaques, making it less suitable for initial diagnosis. *USG* - **Ultrasound (USG)** is primarily used for visualizing soft tissues and vascular structures, not for detailed imaging of the brain or spinal cord parenchyma. - It has no role in the diagnosis or monitoring of **multiple sclerosis**. *PET* - **Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scans** are used to assess metabolic activity and perfusion, often in oncology or certain neurological disorders like Alzheimer's or Parkinson's disease. - It is not routinely used for the diagnosis of **multiple sclerosis**, as it does not clearly visualize the **demyelinating lesions**.

Question 1

Acute Infective Endocarditis with abscess formation is most commonly associated with

Accepted Answer

Staphylococcus

Answer

Listeria

Answer

Streptococcus

Answer

Enterococcus

Question 2

Nuchal translucency is used in

Accepted Answer

ANC USG

Answer

Head scan

Answer

MRI neck

Answer

Anthropometry

Question 3

Double aortic arch is associated with which syndrome?

Accepted Answer

DiGeorge syndrome

Answer

CATCH 22 syndrome

Answer

Shprintzen syndrome

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

A 3-month-old infant presents with an abdominal palpable mass and non-bilious vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

Answer

Tracheoesophageal fistula

Answer

Duodenal atresia

Answer

Intussusception

Question 5

What is the PRIMARY pathophysiological mechanism underlying the most common cause of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?

Accepted Answer

Immature liver enzyme

Answer

Inefficient erythropoiesis

Answer

RBC hemolysis

Answer

Decreased bilirubin excretion

Question 6

Most common site of extramedullary relapse of ALL in a 6-year-old boy is

Accepted Answer

CNS (Central Nervous System)

Answer

Testes

Answer

Liver

Answer

Lung

Question 7

Formication is primarily associated with which condition?

Accepted Answer

Chronic use of amphetamine

Answer

Acute amphetamine intoxication

Answer

Alcohol withdrawal

Answer

Cannabis poisoning

Question 8

What is the definition of phobia?

Accepted Answer

An intense, irrational fear that leads to avoidance

Answer

Fear of specific objects or situations

Answer

A type of anxiety disorder characterized by excessive fear

Answer

A severe anxiety disorder characterized by irrational fear

Question 9

Which chamber enlargement shows a double right heart border with a wide subcarinal angle?

Accepted Answer

Left atrium

Answer

Left ventricle

Answer

Right atrium

Answer

Right ventricle

Question 10

Investigation of choice for multiple sclerosis

Accepted Answer

MRI

Answer

CT

Answer

USG

Answer

PET

NEET-PG 2012

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Psychiatry

Radiology