High-risk pregnancies — Flashcards

Thrombocytopenia in preeclampsia is a contraindication to expectant management _____

Hint: T/F

_____ is a gynecologic malignancy that is often indistinguishable from a leiomyoma

What is the best mode of delivery for a pregnant woman with **active genital HSV lesions or prodrome**? _____ delivery before onset of labor and before rupture of membranes

A short interpregnancy interval predisposes to: - Maternal _____ - Preterm labor/PPROM → low birth weight

Mature cystic teratomas are common causes of premenopausal adnexal masses and have an elevated risk of _____ due to their heterogenous composition

Medical treatment options for fibroids includes _____, progestins, LNG IUDs, and GnRH agonists

Preeclampsia without severe features is managed with delivery at _____

Absence of the **upper** portion of the vagina is caused by _____

Hint: etiology

Asherman syndrome (intrauterine synechiae) is often the result of intrauterine surgery (e.g. myomectomy or overaggressive _____)

What is the next step in management for a hemodynamically stable young woman with RLQ pain and a β-hCG level of 1000 IU/L? Transvaginal ultrasound reveals no intrauterine or extrauterine pregnancy. _____