NEET-PG 2024 - Internal Medicine PYQs Practice Questions

Q: A patient presents with seizures that were controlled with midazolam. Lumbar puncture (LP) revealed no pathology. What is the confirmatory test in the condition shown in the MRI below?

MR spectroscopy. ***MR spectroscopy*** - The MRI shows multiple **ring-enhancing lesions**, which, combined with the history of seizures and normal LP, strongly suggests **neurocysticercosis**. - **MR spectroscopy** can detect the specific biochemical markers (e.g., lactate, succinate) within the cyst, which are indicative of the parasitic infection, and can help differentiate it from other lesions like tumors or abscesses. *PET scan* - A **PET scan** primarily assesses metabolic activity and is more commonly used in the evaluation of tumors or neurodegenerative diseases. - It is generally not the primary or confirmatory test for neurocysticercosis, as it does not directly visualize the parasite or its specific biochemical markers. *CBNAAT* - **CBNAAT (Cartridge-Based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test)** is a rapid molecular test primarily used for the diagnosis of **tuberculosis**, not neurocysticercosis. - While tuberculosis can cause CNS lesions, the clinical and imaging presentation (multiple ring-enhancing lesions) is more suggestive of neurocysticercosis, and CBNAAT would not confirm this diagnosis. *MRI serial scan* - **Serial MRI scans** are useful for monitoring the progression or resolution of lesions over time, especially in response to treatment. - However, a serial scan is not a "confirmatory test" for the initial diagnosis; it provides prognostic or follow-up information rather than confirming the etiology. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient presents with foul-smelling sputum along with breathlessness and fever. Using the X-ray below, identify the diagnosis.

Lung Abscess. ***Lung Abscess*** - The combination of **foul-smelling sputum** (indicating anaerobic bacterial infection), breathlessness, and fever is **pathognomonic for lung abscess** - The X-ray demonstrates a **characteristic air-fluid level** within the lung parenchyma, which is the hallmark radiographic finding of a cavitating lung abscess - When a lung abscess ruptures into a bronchus, it produces the typical **foul-smelling, purulent sputum** described in this case - Common causes include aspiration pneumonia, particularly in patients with risk factors like alcoholism, poor dental hygiene, or altered consciousness *Pleural Effusion* - While pleural effusion can present with breathlessness and fever, it would **not produce foul-smelling sputum** - A simple pleural effusion appears as **blunting of the costophrenic angle** or a **meniscus sign**, not an air-fluid level within the lung field - An empyema (infected pleural effusion) with bronchopleural fistula could theoretically show an air-fluid level, but this would be in the **pleural space**, not within the lung parenchyma, and is much less common than lung abscess *Pneumothorax* - Pneumothorax shows **air in the pleural space** with visible lung edge and absent lung markings peripherally - There would be **no fluid component** and no foul-smelling sputum - The air-fluid level seen here indicates a cavitary lesion, not a pneumothorax *Pericardial Effusion* - Pericardial effusion presents with an **enlarged, globular cardiac silhouette** ("water bottle heart") - It would **not cause respiratory symptoms** like foul-smelling sputum or the radiographic findings shown - The pathology is clearly in the **lung field**, not around the heart [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient presents with shortness of breath. Vitals are HR = 120/min with BP = 90/60 mm Hg. Echocardiography shows diastolic collapse of the ventricles. What is the best management for this patient?

Pericardiocentesis. **Pericardiocentesis** * The constellation of **tachycardia**, **hypotension**, and **diastolic collapse of the ventricles** on echocardiography is highly suggestive of **cardiac tamponade**, a life-threatening condition [1]. * **Pericardiocentesis** is the definitive treatment for cardiac tamponade, as it relieves the pressure on the heart by draining the pericardial fluid, thereby restoring cardiac output and improving hemodynamics [1]. * *Start diuretic with BP monitoring* * Administering **diuretics** would further decrease intravascular volume and worsen already compromised cardiac output in the setting of hypotension due to cardiac tamponade. * While **blood pressure monitoring** is essential, diuretics are contraindicated and would exacerbate the patient's hemodynamic instability. * *Intra-aortic balloon pump* * An **intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)** primarily assists in improving **coronary perfusion** and reducing **afterload** in conditions like cardiogenic shock or severe heart failure. * An IABP does not address the fundamental problem of external compression of the heart in cardiac tamponade and would not relieve the diagnostic finding of diastolic collapse of the ventricles. * *Ventricular assist device* * A **ventricular assist device (VAD)** is used to support failing ventricles by pumping blood from the heart to the rest of the body, typically in cases of advanced heart failure. * A VAD does not resolve the external compression on the heart caused by pericardial fluid in cardiac tamponade and is an invasive measure not indicated as a primary treatment in this scenario. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A farmer presents with severe leg pain, fever, chills, retro-orbital pain, and bilateral conjunctival suffusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Leptospirosis. **Leptospirosis** - The combination of **leg pain**, **fever**, chills, **retro-orbital pain**, and **bilateral conjunctival suffusion** (red eyes without frank pus) in a farmer (occupational exposure to contaminated water/soil) is highly suggestive of **leptospirosis** [1]. - **Conjunctival suffusion** is a classic and distinctive sign of leptospirosis, differentiating it from many other febrile illnesses [1]. *Dengue fever* - While dengue fever can present with **fever**, **retro-orbital pain**, and **myalgia**, **conjunctival suffusion** is not a typical feature, and severe leg pain is less emphasized compared to leptospirosis [2]. - Dengue is also common in tropical/subtropical regions but the specific constellation of symptoms points away from it [2]. *Malaria* - Malaria presents with classic **cyclic fevers**, **chills**, and **sweats**, often accompanied by headache and muscle aches, and sometimes hepatosplenomegaly. - **Conjunctival suffusion** and severe leg pain are not characteristic features of uncomplicated malaria [2]. *Rickettsia infection* - Rickettsial infections (e.g., Rocky Mountain spotted fever, scrub typhus) often present with **fever**, **headache**, and a **rash**, which can be maculopapular or petechial [3]. - **Retro-orbital pain** and **conjunctival suffusion** are not typical symptoms, and a distinctive rash is generally a key diagnostic clue for rickettsial diseases [3]. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 62-year-old patient presents with left-sided arm and leg weakness, right-sided facial paralysis with lateral rectus gaze palsy, and nystagmus. Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following syndromes is most consistent with these symptoms?

Foville syndrome. ***Foville syndrome*** - This syndrome is characterized by a **pontine lesion** affecting the **abducens nucleus (cranial nerve VI)**, leading to ipsilateral gaze palsy, and the **facial nucleus (cranial nerve VII)**, causing ipsilateral facial weakness. [1] - The **crossed hemiparesis (left-sided arm and leg weakness)** results from involvement of the corticospinal tracts, and **nystagmus** can occur due to vestibular nucleus involvement, consistent with the patient's presentation. [1] *Benedict's syndrome* - This is a midbrain syndrome involving the **red nucleus** and **oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III)**, causing ipsilateral oculomotor palsy and contralateral cerebellar ataxia. - It does not explain the patient's **facial weakness** or **abducens palsy**. *Millard-Gubler syndrome* - This pontine syndrome involves the **abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI)** and **facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)** in the pontine base, leading to ipsilateral gaze palsy and ipsilateral facial paralysis. - However, the hemiparesis in Millard-Gubler syndrome is typically **contralateral** to the lesion, but the facial paralysis and gaze palsy are usually due to direct nerve involvement rather than nuclear involvement, and **nystagmus** is not a characteristic feature. *Wallenberg syndrome* - This syndrome, also known as **lateral medullary syndrome**, is caused by a lesion in the **dorsolateral medulla** and presents with a constellation of symptoms including **ipsilateral ataxia**, **Horner's syndrome**, **high-pitched dysphagia**, and **contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation**. [1] - It does not typically involve **facial weakness**, **abducens palsy**, or **hemiparesis** in the manner described. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

A patient presents with seizures that were controlled with midazolam. Lumbar puncture (LP) revealed no pathology. What is the confirmatory test in the condition shown in the MRI below?

Accepted Answer

MR spectroscopy

Answer

PET scan

Answer

CBNAAT

Answer

MRI serial scan

Question 2

A patient presents with foul-smelling sputum along with breathlessness and fever. Using the X-ray below, identify the diagnosis.

Accepted Answer

Lung Abscess

Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

Pericardial Effusion

Answer

Pleural Effusion

Question 3

A patient presents with shortness of breath. Vitals are HR = 120/min with BP = 90/60 mm Hg. Echocardiography shows diastolic collapse of the ventricles. What is the best management for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Pericardiocentesis

Answer

Start diuretic with BP monitoring

Answer

Intra-aortic balloon pump

Answer

Ventricular assist device

Question 4

A farmer presents with severe leg pain, fever, chills, retro-orbital pain, and bilateral conjunctival suffusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Leptospirosis

Answer

Dengue fever

Answer

Malaria

Answer

Rickettsia infection

Question 5

A 62-year-old patient presents with left-sided arm and leg weakness, right-sided facial paralysis with lateral rectus gaze palsy, and nystagmus. Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following syndromes is most consistent with these symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Foville syndrome

Answer

Benedict's syndrome

Answer

Millard-Gubler syndrome

Answer

Wallenberg syndrome

Question 6

The PR interval was measured at 0.21 seconds on a routine ECG of a patient. What is the correct interpretation?

Accepted Answer

First degree heart block

Answer

Second degree heart block

Answer

Normal rhythm

Answer

Complete heart block

Question 7

A patient presents with recurrent lung infections, and the chest X-ray provided shows a characteristic finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Kartagener syndrome

Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

DiGeorge syndrome

Answer

Down syndrome

Question 8

A patient presents with headache, confusion, and a diagnosis of a brain tumor. The family history reveals brain and kidney tumors. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

VHL syndrome

Answer

Neurofibromatosis

Answer

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

Answer

Churg-Strauss syndrome

Question 9

A 26-year-old woman presents to the OPD with distended neck veins and difficulty in breathing. On further evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Radiological imaging reveals an anterior mediastinal mass on CT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Thymoma

Answer

Aortic aneurysm

Answer

CA lung

Answer

Cardiomegaly

Question 10

A patient underwent a gastrectomy. Which vitamin replacement is required?

Accepted Answer

Vitamin B12

Answer

Vitamin A

Answer

Vitamin C

Answer

Vitamin D

NEET-PG 2024 — Internal Medicine