NEET-PG 2022 Practice Questions

Q: A patient presents with the complaint of inability to close the eye, drooling of saliva, and deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected?

Facial nerve. ***Facial nerve*** - The **facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)** controls the muscles of facial expression, including those for eye closure and mouth movement. - Damage to the facial nerve leads to **unilateral facial weakness or paralysis**, causing inability to close the eye, drooling from the corner of the mouth, and deviation of the mouth. *Trigeminal nerve* - The **trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)** is primarily responsible for **facial sensation** and **mastication (chewing)**. - Dysfunction typically presents as facial numbness, pain, or difficulty chewing, not facial muscle paralysis. *Oculomotor nerve* - The **oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III)** controls most **extraocular muscles** (eye movements), pupillary constriction, and lifts the eyelid. - Damage would result in ptosis (drooping eyelid), dilated pupil, and outward and downward deviation of the eye. *Glossopharyngeal nerve* - The **glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX)** is involved in **taste from the posterior tongue**, **swallowing**, and sensation from the pharynx. - Its impairment can lead to difficulty swallowing, loss of gag reflex, or altered taste, but not facial paralysis.

Q: Which statement best describes the criteria for starting an urban community health center?

Caters to a population of 1-1.5 lakh. ***Caters to a population of 1-1.5 lakh*** - An **urban community health center (UCHC)** is designed to provide comprehensive primary healthcare services to an urban population of **1 to 1.5 lakh**. - This population criterion ensures effective service delivery and proper resource allocation for a designated urban area. *Referral center for 2-3 primary health centers* - This description typically applies to a **sub-district hospital** or a higher-level facility, which serve as referral centers for multiple primary health centers. - A UCHC primarily focuses on direct provision of primary care, not usually acting as a referral hub for other primary care units. *Should have a 100-bed facility in metro cities* - A **100-bed facility** is characteristic of a larger hospital, such as a district hospital, not an urban community health center. - UCHCs typically have minimal or no inpatient beds, focusing on outpatient services and emergency care rather than extensive hospitalization. *No sub-district and district hospitals present in the area* - This statement is not a criteria for a UCHC; in fact, UCHCs often function within a healthcare system that includes larger hospitals for referral of complex cases. - The presence or absence of higher-level facilities does not define the necessity or establishment of a UCHC.

Q: In triage, which category of patients is classified as green?

Minor injury patients. ***Minor injury patients*** - Patients classified as **green** in triage are those with **minor injuries** that are not immediately life-threatening. - They can often wait for treatment without significant risk of deterioration and may be able to **walk and self-care** to some extent. *Medium risk patients* - This category generally corresponds to **yellow** in triage, indicating patients with **significant injuries** who require care within a few hours. - While not immediately life-threatening, their condition could worsen if treatment is delayed. *High-risk patients* - This category typically corresponds to **red** in triage, signifying patients with **life-threatening injuries** or conditions. - These patients require immediate medical attention to survive. *Dead patients* - Patients who are deceased or have injuries incompatible with life are typically categorized as **black** in triage. - This classification indicates that no medical intervention can save them.

Q: Considering that dogs are the most common carriers of rabies and that the disease predominantly affects children in developing countries, what is the most effective and direct method to significantly reduce the incidence of rabies?

Control the stray dog population and vaccinate all dogs. ***Control the stray dog population and vaccinate all dogs*** - As dogs are the primary reservoirs of rabies, controlling their population, coupled with widespread **dog vaccination**, is the most direct and effective strategy to break the transmission cycle to humans. - This approach tackles the root cause of the disease in areas where dog-mediated transmission is endemic, leading to a significant reduction in human rabies cases. *Conduct rabies testing for all dogs* - While testing identifies infected animals, it is **resource-intensive** and impractical for large dog populations, especially in low-resource settings, and does not prevent future infections. - This strategy is reactive rather than **proactive** in preventing the spread of rabies. *Enhance laboratory testing capabilities* - Improving laboratory testing capabilities is crucial for **surveillance** and accurate diagnosis but does not directly prevent rabies transmission at the source. - It's a supportive measure that helps monitor disease burden but isn't the most effective **primary intervention** for incidence reduction. *Improve healthcare worker training for disease surveillance* - Training healthcare workers enhances case detection and reporting, which is vital for **epidemiological monitoring** and timely post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). - However, it does not address the fundamental issue of rabies transmission from dogs to humans and is not a direct prevention method for reducing disease incidence.

Q: A male patient presented with a 0.3 cm nodule on the left nasolabial fold. A pathological examination revealed a basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Basal cell carcinoma. ***Basal cell carcinoma*** - The description of a **basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading** on pathological examination is a classic histological feature of basal cell carcinoma (BCC). - BCC commonly presents as a nodule on sun-exposed areas like the **nasolabial fold** and is the most common skin cancer. *Melanoma* - Melanoma is characterized by the **malignant proliferation of melanocytes** and histologically shows atypical melanocytes with pagetoid spread or nest formation. - While it can appear as a nodule, the described **basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading** is not characteristic of melanoma. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - Squamous cell carcinoma typically shows **atypical keratinocytes** with keratinization, intercellular bridges, and sometimes desmoplasia. - It usually presents as an **erythematous, scaly patch** or nodule, often with ulceration, and the described histology does not match. *Nevus* - A nevus (mole) is a benign proliferation of melanocytes, showing **uniform nests of melanocytes** with maturation as they descend into the dermis. - The term **basaloid appearance** refers to cells resembling basal keratinocytes, which is not typical for a nevus.

Q: A male patient presents to the emergency department. The arterial blood gas report is as follows: pH, 7.2; pCO2, 81 mmHg; and HCO3, 40 meq/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Respiratory acidosis. ***Respiratory acidosis*** - The **pH of 7.2** indicates **acidemia**, while the **elevated pCO2 (81 mmHg)** points to a primary respiratory problem [2]. - The elevated **HCO3 (40 meq/L)** suggests **renal compensation** attempting to buffer the increased carbonic acid [1]. *Respiratory alkalosis* - This condition presents with an **elevated pH (alkalemia)** and a **decreased pCO2**, which is opposite to the given ABG values [2]. - While there might be metabolic compensation with a decreased HCO3, the primary disturbance is an increase in respiratory rate leading to excessive CO2 exhalation. *Metabolic acidosis* - Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a **low pH** and a **low HCO3**, with a compensatory decrease in pCO2 [1]. - The given ABG shows a high HCO3, which rules out primary metabolic acidosis. *Metabolic alkalosis* - This condition would typically show an **elevated pH** and an **elevated HCO3**, with a compensatory increase in pCO2. - While both HCO3 and pCO2 are high in the given ABG, the low pH points to a primary acidosis, not alkalosis.

Q: Which of the following is most likely to be seen due to the rupture of a saccular aneurysm?

Subarachnoid hemorrhage. ***Subarachnoid hemorrhage*** - A **saccular aneurysm** (often a **berry aneurysm**) commonly ruptures into the **subarachnoid space**, causing bleeding around the brain [2]. - This leads to a sudden onset of a "thunderclap headache," **meningeal irritation**, and neurological deficits [1]. *Subdural hemorrhage* - A **subdural hemorrhage** is typically caused by the tearing of **bridging veins** between the dura and arachnoid mater, often due to **trauma** [3]. - While it can occur, it is a less common direct consequence of saccular aneurysm rupture compared to subarachnoid hemorrhage. *Intracerebral hemorrhage* - An **intracerebral hemorrhage** involves bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, most often due to **hypertension** or **amyloid angiopathy**. - Although a ruptured aneurysm can rarely extend into the brain tissue, the primary initial bleeding is usually into the subarachnspace [4]. *Hydrocephalus* - **Hydrocephalus** can be a *complication* of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, resulting from impaired CSF reabsorption or obstruction of CSF flow due to blood clots. - However, it is not the *initial event* caused directly by the rupture of a saccular aneurysm [4].

Q: All of the following statements are true regarding neutrophil extracellular trapping (NET) except for which of the following?

Mitochondrial DNA is seen. ***Mitochondrial DNA is seen*** - NETs (Neutrophil Extracellular Traps) are made primarily of **nuclear chromatin**, not mitochondrial DNA [2]. - The main purpose of NETs is to trap and kill pathogens, focusing on **nuclear genetic material** rather than mitochondrial components. *It is detected in blood during sepsis* - NETs can indeed be found in the **circulation during sepsis**, serving as a defense mechanism against infections. - Their presence in blood indicates an **active immune response**, particularly in severe systemic infections. *It is produced in response to bacterial infection* - NET formation is a known response to **bacterial infections**, as neutrophils deploy them to capture and neutralize pathogens. - This process helps in controlling infections, showcasing the importance of NETs in **innate immunity**. *It is chromatin with antibacterial enzymes* - NETs consist primarily of **decondensed chromatin**, embedded with **antimicrobial proteins** and enzymes to combat pathogens [1][2]. - This characteristic underscores their role in targeting and eliminating invading microorganisms effectively. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 91-92. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 92-93.

Q: Multidrug-resistant (MDR) tuberculosis shows resistance to which of the following drugs?

Isoniazid and rifampicin only. ***Isoniazid and rifampicin only*** - **Multidrug-resistant (MDR) tuberculosis** is specifically defined by resistance to both **isoniazid** and **rifampicin**. - These two drugs are considered the most effective first-line anti-TB medications, making resistance to both a significant treatment challenge. *Isoniazid, rifampicin, and fluoroquinolone* - Resistance to **isoniazid**, **rifampicin**, and *any* fluoroquinolone defines **pre-extensively drug-resistant (pre-XDR) TB**, not MDR-TB. - Adding resistance to a fluoroquinolone indicates a more severe and harder-to-treat form of tuberculosis. *Fluoroquinolone* - Resistance to **fluoroquinolone** alone does not define MDR-TB; it is only one component of resistance that, when combined with resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin, signifies pre-XDR or XDR-TB. - While fluoroquinolones are important second-line drugs, their resistance in isolation does not meet the criteria for MDR-TB. *Isoniazid, rifampicin, and kanamycin* - Resistance to **isoniazid**, **rifampicin**, and *any* second-line injectable agent (like **kanamycin**, capreomycin, or amikacin) defines **extensively drug-resistant (XDR) TB**, not MDR-TB. - XDR-TB represents an even more complex and difficult form of the disease to treat, requiring highly specialized regimens.

Q: A woman, who is 4 days postpartum, presented with tearfulness, mood swings, and occasional insomnia. What is the likely diagnosis?

Postpartum blues. ***Postpartum blues*** - This condition presents with mild, transient symptoms like **tearfulness**, **mood swings**, and **insomnia** typically peaking around **4-5 days postpartum** and resolving within two weeks. - It is a very common, self-limiting condition impacting up to 80% of new mothers, attributed to drastic **hormonal shifts** post-delivery. *Postpartum depression* - Symptoms are similar to postpartum blues but are more **severe**, last longer (typically **beyond two weeks**), and significantly impair functioning. - It often includes feelings of **hopelessness**, pervasive sadness, loss of pleasure, and sometimes thoughts of harming oneself or the baby. *Postpartum psychosis* - This is a severe psychiatric emergency characterized by **hallucinations**, delusions, disorganized thinking, and bizarre behavior, usually within the first 2-3 weeks postpartum. - It is a rare condition requiring **urgent medical intervention** due to the high risk of harm to mother and baby. *Postpartum anxiety* - While anxiety can co-occur with postpartum blues or depression, primary postpartum anxiety specifically involves excessive and **uncontrollable worry** or fear, often about the baby's health or safety. - It does not typically present with the prominent **tearfulness** and **mood swings** characteristic of blues or depression.

Question 1

A patient presents with the complaint of inability to close the eye, drooling of saliva, and deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected?

Accepted Answer

Facial nerve

Answer

Trigeminal nerve

Answer

Oculomotor nerve

Answer

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Question 2

Which statement best describes the criteria for starting an urban community health center?

Accepted Answer

Caters to a population of 1-1.5 lakh

Answer

Referral center for 2-3 primary health centers

Answer

Should have a 100-bed facility in metro cities

Answer

No sub-district and district hospitals present in the area

Question 3

In triage, which category of patients is classified as green?

Accepted Answer

Minor injury patients

Answer

Medium risk patients

Answer

High-risk patients

Answer

Dead patients

Question 4

Considering that dogs are the most common carriers of rabies and that the disease predominantly affects children in developing countries, what is the most effective and direct method to significantly reduce the incidence of rabies?

Accepted Answer

Control the stray dog population and vaccinate all dogs

Answer

Conduct rabies testing for all dogs

Answer

Enhance laboratory testing capabilities

Answer

Improve healthcare worker training for disease surveillance

Question 5

A male patient presented with a 0.3 cm nodule on the left nasolabial fold. A pathological examination revealed a basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Basal cell carcinoma

Answer

Melanoma

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer

Nevus

Question 6

A male patient presents to the emergency department. The arterial blood gas report is as follows: pH, 7.2; pCO2, 81 mmHg; and HCO3, 40 meq/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Respiratory acidosis

Answer

Respiratory alkalosis

Answer

Metabolic acidosis

Answer

Metabolic alkalosis

Question 7

Which of the following is most likely to be seen due to the rupture of a saccular aneurysm?

Accepted Answer

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer

Subdural hemorrhage

Answer

Intracerebral hemorrhage

Answer

Hydrocephalus

Question 8

All of the following statements are true regarding neutrophil extracellular trapping (NET) except for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Mitochondrial DNA is seen

Answer

It is detected in blood during sepsis

Answer

It is chromatin with antibacterial enzymes

Answer

It is produced in response to bacterial infection

Question 9

Multidrug-resistant (MDR) tuberculosis shows resistance to which of the following drugs?

Accepted Answer

Isoniazid and rifampicin only

Answer

Isoniazid, rifampicin, and fluoroquinolone

Answer

Fluoroquinolone

Answer

Isoniazid, rifampicin, and kanamycin

Question 10

A woman, who is 4 days postpartum, presented with tearfulness, mood swings, and occasional insomnia. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Postpartum blues

Answer

Postpartum depression

Answer

Postpartum psychosis

Answer

Postpartum anxiety

NEET-PG 2022

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pharmacology

Psychiatry