NEET-PG 2022 - Surgery PYQs Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is a primary aim of damage control laparotomy?

Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.. ***Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.*** * The overarching goal of a **damage control laparotomy** is to rapidly address immediate life threats, primarily **hemorrhage** and **bowel contamination**, in severely injured, unstable patients. * This approach prioritizes patient survival by performing essential steps quickly, deferring definitive repairs until the patient is physiologically stable. *Control contamination* * While **controlling contamination** is a critical component of damage control laparotomy, it is not the sole primary aim. * Uncontrolled bleeding, even without contamination, can rapidly lead to death in a trauma patient. *Prevent coagulopathy* * Preventing **coagulopathy** is an important consideration during damage control, but it is a consequence of uncontrolled hemorrhage and hypothermia, rather than a primary surgical aim in the initial damage control phase. * The surgical steps in damage control directly address the sources of bleeding and contamination. *Arrest hemorrhage* * **Arresting hemorrhage** is indeed a primary aim, but it is often accompanied by the need to control contamination from injured hollow organs. * Many abdominal trauma cases involve both significant bleeding and potential contamination. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What type of wound is characterized by the scraping away of the skin?

Abrasion. ***Abrasion*** - An **abrasion** is a wound caused by the **scraping or rubbing away of the superficial layers of the skin** (epidermis and sometimes superficial dermis). - It typically results from a fall or friction against a rough surface, common in children's scraped knees or elbows. *Superficial wound* - This is a **general term** and does not specifically describe the mechanism of injury as scraping. - A superficial wound could be a **minor cut or scratch** that doesn't involve scraping. *Tear in the skin* - A **tear in the skin** refers to a **laceration**, which is a wound caused by tearing of soft body tissue, often resulting in irregular edges. - This is distinct from the scraping action characteristic of an abrasion, where tissue is rubbed away rather than torn. *Deep tissue injury* - A **deep tissue injury (DTI)** is a **pressure-related injury** characterized by intact skin with **discoloration** (e.g., maroon or purple) or a blood-filled blister due to damage of underlying soft tissue. - It is not caused by external scraping and involves deeper tissue layers affected by prolonged pressure. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What is the preferred method for removing a foreign body from the lung in children?

Rigid bronchoscopy. ***Rigid bronchoscopy*** - **Rigid bronchoscopy** is the preferred method for removing foreign bodies from the lung in children due to its ability to provide better air control, magnified viewing, and larger working channels for robust grasping tools. - It allows for complete ventilation control and isolation of the airway, which is crucial in children where airway obstruction can rapidly lead to respiratory compromise. *Chest x-ray* - A **chest x-ray** is a diagnostic tool used to identify the presence and location of a foreign body, but it is not a method for removal. - Many foreign bodies, especially non-radiopaque ones like food, may not be visible on an x-ray, making it unreliable for definitive diagnosis of presence or absence. *Flexible endoscopy* - While **flexible bronchoscopy** can be used for foreign body removal in some adults or specific situations, it is generally less effective and carries higher risks in children, especially for larger or lodged objects. - Its smaller working channels and less stable airway control make it less suitable for urgent and complete removal in the pediatric population. *Direct laryngoscopy* - **Direct laryngoscopy** is used to visualize the larynx and vocal cords, primarily to remove foreign bodies from the upper airway or intubate, but not typically for removal of foreign bodies lodged deep within the main bronchi or lungs. - It does not offer direct access or visualization of the lower bronchial tree where most aspirated foreign bodies in children tend to lodge. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: An elderly male patient presented with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and discharge as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?

Fournier’s gangrene. ***Fournier's gangrene*** - The sudden onset of scrotal pain with discharge in an elderly male, combined with **tissue necrosis** and extensive scrotal skin changes, is characteristic of **Fournier's gangrene** (necrotizing fasciitis of the genitalia). - Elderly males are at higher risk due to **diabetes**, **immunocompromise**, and **urogenital infections**, making this a rapidly progressive and potentially life-threatening condition requiring urgent surgical debridement. *Acute epididymo-orchitis* - While epididymo-orchitis can cause scrotal pain and discharge, it typically does **not cause tissue necrosis** or the extensive scrotal skin changes described. - It presents as **localized inflammation** of the epididymis/testis without the widespread necrotizing changes seen in this case. *Torsion of testis* - Testicular torsion typically presents with **abrupt, severe scrotal pain** and swelling, but usually **without discharge** or the extensive scrotal skin changes seen here. - It constitutes a **surgical emergency** due to compromised blood supply to the testis, but doesn't involve necrotizing infection. *Scrotal carcinoma* - Scrotal carcinoma usually presents as a **painless mass or ulceration** that grows over time, rather than a sudden onset of severe pain and discharge. - It represents a **chronic process** and doesn't typically cause the acute necrotizing inflammatory changes observed in this case. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: The image below shows a pressure sore. Which stage does this belong to?

Stage 4. ***Stage 4*** - The image clearly shows **extensive tissue loss**, including exposed bone and muscle, indicating a **deep tissue injury**. - The presence of large areas of **dead tissue (eschar)**, undermining, and tunneling are characteristic features of a stage 4 pressure sore. *Stage 1* - This stage involves **intact skin** with non-blanchable redness, indicating only superficial damage. - There is no **break in the skin** or tissue loss in Stage 1 pressure sores. *Stage 2* - Characterized by **partial-thickness skin loss**, presenting as an open blister or shallow ulcer. - **No visible deeper tissue** such as fat, muscle, or bone is exposed in this stage. *Stage 3* - Involves **full-thickness skin loss** with visible subcutaneous fat, but bone, tendon, or muscle are not exposed. - While there may be **undermining or tunneling**, the deep structures are not yet visible as seen in the image. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

Which of the following is a primary aim of damage control laparotomy?

Accepted Answer

Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.

Answer

Control contamination

Answer

Prevent coagulopathy

Answer

Arrest hemorrhage

Question 2

What type of wound is characterized by the scraping away of the skin?

Accepted Answer

Abrasion

Answer

Superficial wound

Answer

Tear in the skin

Answer

Deep tissue injury

Question 3

What is the preferred method for removing a foreign body from the lung in children?

Accepted Answer

Rigid bronchoscopy

Answer

Chest x-ray

Answer

Flexible endoscopy

Answer

Direct laryngoscopy

Question 4

An elderly male patient presented with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and discharge as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Fournier’s gangrene

Answer

Torsion of testis

Answer

Scrotal carcinoma

Answer

Acute epididymo-orchitis

Question 5

The image below shows a pressure sore. Which stage does this belong to?

Accepted Answer

Stage 4

Answer

Stage 1

Answer

Stage 2

Answer

Stage 3

Question 6

Identify the most common site of an intraperitoneal abscess.

Accepted Answer

Pelvis (Pouch of Douglas)

Answer

Suprahepatic

Answer

Left subphrenic space

Answer

Subhepatic

Question 7

A 40 years old male was brought emergency with severe abdominal pain. On examination, pulse rate was 112/minute and systolic BP was 80 mmHg. Chest x-ray is given below. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Saline wash of stomach

Answer

Intercostal tube drainage

Answer

IV antibiotics

Question 8

While shaving, a 45-year-old teacher notices a marble-sized mass beneath his left ear. The mass is eventually excised, revealing which of the following benign parotid gland lesions?

Accepted Answer

Warthin tumor

Answer

Cystic dilation

Answer

Mikulicz's disease

Answer

Glandular hypertrophy, secondary to vitamin A deficiency

NEET-PG 2022 — Surgery