NEET-PG 2022 - Surgery PYQs Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is a primary aim of damage control laparotomy?

Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.. ***Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.*** * The overarching goal of a **damage control laparotomy** is to rapidly address immediate life threats, primarily **hemorrhage** and **bowel contamination**, in severely injured, unstable patients. * This approach prioritizes patient survival by performing essential steps quickly, deferring definitive repairs until the patient is physiologically stable. *Control contamination* * While **controlling contamination** is a critical component of damage control laparotomy, it is not the sole primary aim. * Uncontrolled bleeding, even without contamination, can rapidly lead to death in a trauma patient. *Prevent coagulopathy* * Preventing **coagulopathy** is an important consideration during damage control, but it is a consequence of uncontrolled hemorrhage and hypothermia, rather than a primary surgical aim in the initial damage control phase. * The surgical steps in damage control directly address the sources of bleeding and contamination. *Arrest hemorrhage* * **Arresting hemorrhage** is indeed a primary aim, but it is often accompanied by the need to control contamination from injured hollow organs. * Many abdominal trauma cases involve both significant bleeding and potential contamination. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: An elderly male patient presented with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and discharge as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?

Fournier’s gangrene. ***Fournier's gangrene*** - The sudden onset of scrotal pain with discharge in an elderly male, combined with **tissue necrosis** and extensive scrotal skin changes, is characteristic of **Fournier's gangrene** (necrotizing fasciitis of the genitalia). - Elderly males are at higher risk due to **diabetes**, **immunocompromise**, and **urogenital infections**, making this a rapidly progressive and potentially life-threatening condition requiring urgent surgical debridement. *Acute epididymo-orchitis* - While epididymo-orchitis can cause scrotal pain and discharge, it typically does **not cause tissue necrosis** or the extensive scrotal skin changes described. - It presents as **localized inflammation** of the epididymis/testis without the widespread necrotizing changes seen in this case. *Torsion of testis* - Testicular torsion typically presents with **abrupt, severe scrotal pain** and swelling, but usually **without discharge** or the extensive scrotal skin changes seen here. - It constitutes a **surgical emergency** due to compromised blood supply to the testis, but doesn't involve necrotizing infection. *Scrotal carcinoma* - Scrotal carcinoma usually presents as a **painless mass or ulceration** that grows over time, rather than a sudden onset of severe pain and discharge. - It represents a **chronic process** and doesn't typically cause the acute necrotizing inflammatory changes observed in this case. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Identify the most common site of an intraperitoneal abscess.

Pelvis (Pouch of Douglas). ***Pelvis (Pouch of Douglas)*** - The **Pouch of Douglas** (rectouterine or rectovesical pouch) is the **most common site** for intraperitoneal abscesses. - It is the **most dependent (lowest) part** of the peritoneal cavity in both upright and supine positions, allowing gravity to facilitate collection of infected fluid. - Commonly results from **perforated appendicitis**, **diverticulitis**, **gynecological infections** (PID, tubo-ovarian abscess), or any source of peritoneal contamination where infected material flows downward. - **Clinical significance**: Pelvic abscesses can be drained via transrectal or transvaginal approaches, making them accessible for percutaneous drainage. *Subhepatic* - The **subhepatic space** (Morison's pouch on the right) is a **common but not the most common** site for intraperitoneal abscesses. - More specifically associated with **cholecystitis**, **perforated duodenal ulcers**, or hepatobiliary surgery complications. - While dependent in the supine position, it is less dependent than the pelvis in the upright position. *Suprahepatic* - Abscesses in the **suprahepatic space** are relatively uncommon. - May occur from direct extension of liver abscesses or as complications of upper abdominal surgery. - The presence of peritoneal attachments limits widespread fluid collection in this area. *Left subphrenic space* - The **left subphrenic space** is less commonly involved than the pelvis or right subphrenic spaces. - Typically arises from complications of **splenic injury**, **pancreatitis**, **gastric perforations**, or post-splenectomy infections. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: The image below shows a pressure sore. Which stage does this belong to?

Stage 4. ***Stage 4*** - The image clearly shows **extensive tissue loss**, including exposed bone and muscle, indicating a **deep tissue injury**. - The presence of large areas of **dead tissue (eschar)**, undermining, and tunneling are characteristic features of a stage 4 pressure sore. *Stage 1* - This stage involves **intact skin** with non-blanchable redness, indicating only superficial damage. - There is no **break in the skin** or tissue loss in Stage 1 pressure sores. *Stage 2* - Characterized by **partial-thickness skin loss**, presenting as an open blister or shallow ulcer. - **No visible deeper tissue** such as fat, muscle, or bone is exposed in this stage. *Stage 3* - Involves **full-thickness skin loss** with visible subcutaneous fat, but bone, tendon, or muscle are not exposed. - While there may be **undermining or tunneling**, the deep structures are not yet visible as seen in the image. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 59-year-old lady presents with a progressive, painless lump in the breast. What is the cause of the skin change associated with breast cancer?

Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics. ***Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics*** - The skin change described often refers to **peau d'orange**, which is caused by the **blockage of superficial lymphatic vessels** by tumor cells [1]. - This lymphatic obstruction leads to **edema** and dimpling of the skin, resembling an orange peel [1]. *Infiltration of the lactiferous duct* - While cancer can arise in or infiltrate lactiferous ducts, this primarily causes symptoms like **nipple discharge**, inversion, or a palpable mass. - It does not directly explain the specific **skin dimpling** or **peau d'orange** appearance. *Involvement of Cooper's ligament* - Involvement of **Cooper's ligaments** (suspensory ligaments of the breast) can cause skin dimpling or retraction [1]. - However, the image depicts widespread **peau d'orange**, which is more commonly associated with lymphatic involvement than direct ligamentous retraction [1]. *Spread of the tumor to the anterior chest wall* - Tumor extension to the **anterior chest wall** signifies advanced disease and can cause **fixation of the breast** to underlying structures or skin ulceration [2]. - This typically results in **immobility of the breast** or an ulcerated lesion, not the widespread edematous and dimpled appearance of **peau d'orange**. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 453-454. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 456-457. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

Which of the following is a primary aim of damage control laparotomy?

Accepted Answer

Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.

Answer

Control contamination

Answer

Prevent coagulopathy

Answer

Arrest hemorrhage

Question 2

An elderly male patient presented with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and discharge as shown in the image. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Fournier’s gangrene

Answer

Torsion of testis

Answer

Scrotal carcinoma

Answer

Acute epididymo-orchitis

Question 3

Identify the most common site of an intraperitoneal abscess.

Accepted Answer

Pelvis (Pouch of Douglas)

Answer

Suprahepatic

Answer

Left subphrenic space

Answer

Subhepatic

Question 4

The image below shows a pressure sore. Which stage does this belong to?

Accepted Answer

Stage 4

Answer

Stage 1

Answer

Stage 2

Answer

Stage 3

Question 5

A 59-year-old lady presents with a progressive, painless lump in the breast. What is the cause of the skin change associated with breast cancer?

Accepted Answer

Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics

Answer

Infiltration of the lactiferous duct

Answer

Involvement of Cooper’s ligament

Answer

Spread of the tumor to the anterior chest wall

Question 6

A 60-year-old male with a history of smoking presents with severe abdominal pain and a pulsatile abdominal mass. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

Accepted Answer

CT angiography

Answer

Immediate surgery

Answer

Ultrasound of the abdomen

Answer

Observation

Question 7

A 40 years old male was brought emergency with severe abdominal pain. On examination, pulse rate was 112/minute and systolic BP was 80 mmHg. Chest x-ray is given below. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Saline wash of stomach

Answer

Intercostal tube drainage

Answer

IV antibiotics

Question 8

Most sensitive investigation for abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically stable patient is-

Accepted Answer

CT Scan (Computed Tomography)

Answer

Ultrasonography (FAST)

Answer

Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)

Answer

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)

Question 9

While shaving, a 45-year-old teacher notices a marble-sized mass beneath his left ear. The mass is eventually excised, revealing which of the following benign parotid gland lesions?

Accepted Answer

Warthin tumor

Answer

Cystic dilation

Answer

Mikulicz's disease

Answer

Glandular hypertrophy, secondary to vitamin A deficiency

NEET-PG 2022 — Surgery