NEET-PG 2022 - Internal Medicine PYQs Practice Questions

Q: A woman with two children presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea for one year. The most probable diagnosis is:

Prolactinoma. ***Prolactinoma*** - The classic presentation of **galactorrhea** (milk production unrelated to pregnancy or breastfeeding) and **amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) in a non-pregnant woman strongly suggests hyperprolactinemia, most commonly due to a **prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma** (prolactinoma). - High prolactin levels can inhibit GnRH pulsatility from the hypothalamus, leading to decreased LH and FSH secretion, which in turn causes **anovulation** and thus amenorrhea. *Ectopic pregnancy* - This condition presents with symptoms like **abdominal pain**, vaginal bleeding, and a **positive pregnancy test**, which are not mentioned here. - While an ectopic pregnancy is a cause of amenorrhea, it does not typically cause galactorrhea. *Pituitary apoplexy* - This is an acute, life-threatening condition caused by hemorrhage or infarction of the pituitary gland, presenting with **sudden severe headache**, visual disturbances, and altered mental status. - While it can affect pituitary function, its acute onset and severe symptoms are inconsistent with the one-year history of galactorrhea and amenorrhea. *Hypothalamic dysfunction* - Although hypothalamic dysfunction can cause amenorrhea due to impaired GnRH release, it typically presents with **low or normal prolactin levels**, not elevated prolactin causing galactorrhea. - Conditions like **functional hypothalamic amenorrhea** (due to stress, excessive exercise, or low body weight) would involve a different hormonal profile. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is NOT typically seen in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in tubercular meningitis?

Low opening pressure. ***Low opening pressure*** - While **elevated opening pressure** is common in tubercular meningitis due to inflammation and impaired CSF absorption, **low opening pressure** is not a typical finding. - Low opening pressure can occur with conditions like **CSF leak** or **spinal tap headache**, which are not directly characteristic of tubercular meningitis. *Low sugar* - **Low CSF glucose** (hypoglycorrhachia) is highly characteristic of bacterial and tubercular meningitis, as the bacteria or mycobacteria consume glucose. - The **CSF-to-blood glucose ratio** is typically less than 0.4 in tubercular meningitis. *High protein* - **Elevated CSF protein** is a consistent finding in tubercular meningitis, resulting from inflammation, increased vascular permeability, and breakdown of the blood-brain barrier. - Protein levels often range from **100-500 mg/dL** or even higher. *Lymphocytic Pleocytosis* - **Lymphocytic pleocytosis** (increased lymphocytes in CSF) is a hallmark of tubercular meningitis, although early stages might show a mixed cellular response. - The cell count typically ranges from **100-500 cells/µL**, predominantly lymphocytes. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which one of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?

Cystic fibrosis. ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cystic fibrosis** is caused by mutations in the **CFTR gene**, leading to defective **chloride channel** function. - It is an **autosomal recessive disorder**, meaning an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to be affected. *Huntington's disease* - **Huntington's disease** is an **autosomal dominant disorder** caused by a mutation in the HTT gene. - Only one copy of the mutated gene is sufficient to cause the disease, resulting in progressive neurodegeneration. *Marfan syndrome* - **Marfan syndrome** is an **autosomal dominant disorder** affecting connective tissue, caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene. - It results in skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular abnormalities due to defective **fibrillin-1**. *Neurofibromatosis type 1* - **Neurofibromatosis type 1** is an **autosomal dominant disorder** caused by mutations in the NF1 gene. - It is characterized by multiple neurofibromas, café-au-lait macules, and Lisch nodules. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient presents with a unilateral throbbing headache, photophobia, and excessive lacrimation. He also complains of hemifacial pain on the clenching of teeth. On examination, pupillary reaction, light reflex, and accommodation reflex are normal. Which of the following marked nerves is most likely involved in the above scenario?

Trigeminal nerve. ***Trigeminal nerve*** - The patient's symptoms of **unilateral throbbing headache**, **photophobia**, **excessive lacrimation**, and **hemifacial pain exacerbated by clenching teeth** are characteristic of trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias, such as **cluster headache** or **paroxysmal hemicrania**. These conditions involve the trigeminal nerve and its parasympathetic connections. - The image indicates **cranial nerve V** (trigeminal nerve) as structure 2, which has sensory innervation to the face and motor innervation to the muscles of mastication. **Hemifacial pain on clenching teeth** directly implicates the trigeminal nerve. *Oculomotor nerve* - The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) primarily controls most **eye movements** and **pupil constriction**. - While headaches can sometimes affect pupil size (e.g., Horner's syndrome in cluster headache may involve sympathetic fibers that travel with cranial nerves), the core symptoms of facial pain on teeth clenching are not directly related to oculomotor nerve function. The normal pupillary and light reflexes also indicate its intact function. *Hypoglossal nerve* - The hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) is responsible for **tongue movement**. - Symptoms like headache, facial pain, photophobia, or lacrimation are not associated with hypoglossal nerve dysfunction. *Facial nerve* - The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) controls **facial expressions**, **taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue**, and **lacrimation/salivation**. - While it contributes to lacrimation, the primary symptoms of unilateral throbbing headache and hemifacial pain, particularly exacerbated by teeth clenching, are not characteristic of facial nerve involvement. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with abdominal distension, jaundice, and pruritis. Ascitic fluid analysis revealed a neutrophil count >650 per cubic mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. ***Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis*** - The combination of **chronic liver disease**, **ascites**, and a significantly elevated ascitic fluid **neutrophil count (>250 cells/mm³ is diagnostic)**, in this case, >650 cells/mm³, is highly indicative of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP). - SBP is a common and serious complication in patients with **cirrhosis** and ascites, characterized by bacterial infection of ascitic fluid without an obvious source. *Malignant ascites* - While malignant ascites can occur in chronic liver disease (e.g., from hepatocellular carcinoma), the ascitic fluid analysis would typically show **cytology positive for malignant cells** and often a **low neutrophil count** unless secondarily infected. - The primary differentiator here is the very high neutrophil count suggesting an acute inflammatory/infectious process. *Tubercular ascites* - Tubercular ascites might present with ascites and abdominal distension, but the ascitic fluid analysis usually shows a **lymphocytic predominance** (high lymphocyte count) rather than a high neutrophil count. - Diagnosis typically involves **adenosine deaminase (ADA) levels**, acid-fast bacilli smear, or culture of ascitic fluid. *Intestinal obstruction* - Intestinal obstruction primarily causes **abdominal pain, distension, nausea, vomiting**, and constipation, with a clinical picture distinct from SBP. - While it can lead to ascites in rare cases (e.g., from bowel ischemia or perforation), the ascitic fluid would not characteristically show such a high neutrophil count unless there was associated perforation and peritonitis. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

A woman with two children presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea for one year. The most probable diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

Prolactinoma

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Answer

Pituitary apoplexy

Answer

Hypothalamic dysfunction

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT typically seen in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in tubercular meningitis?

Accepted Answer

Low opening pressure

Answer

Low sugar

Answer

High protein

Answer

Lymphocytic Pleocytosis

Question 3

Which one of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?

Accepted Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

Huntington's disease

Answer

Marfan syndrome

Answer

Neurofibromatosis type 1

Question 4

A patient presents with a unilateral throbbing headache, photophobia, and excessive lacrimation. He also complains of hemifacial pain on the clenching of teeth. On examination, pupillary reaction, light reflex, and accommodation reflex are normal. Which of the following marked nerves is most likely involved in the above scenario?

Accepted Answer

Trigeminal nerve

Answer

Hypoglossal nerve

Answer

Oculomotor nerve

Answer

Facial nerve

Question 5

A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with abdominal distension, jaundice,    and pruritis. Ascitic fluid analysis revealed a neutrophil count >650 per cubic mm. What is the    most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Answer

Malignant ascites

Answer

Tubercular ascites

Answer

Intestinal obstruction

Question 6

A patient presents to you with an irregularly irregular pulse of 120/minutes and a pulse deficit    of 20. Which of the following would be the jugular venous pressure (JVP) finding?

Accepted Answer

Absent a wave

Answer

Normal JVP

Answer

Cannon a wave

Answer

Raised JVP with normal waveform

Question 7

A female patient presents to you with a unilateral headache. It is associated with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia. What is the drug of choice for acute management?

Accepted Answer

Sumatriptan

Answer

Flunarizine

Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Topiramate

Question 8

Which of the following is not seen in MEN 2B syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Parathyroid adenoma

Answer

Mucosal neuroma

Answer

Marfanoid habitus

Answer

Megacolon

Question 9

A patient presents to you with fever, night sweats, ptosis, and bilateral facial nerve palsy.    Investigations showed leukocytosis and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Which of the    following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Lymphoma

Answer

Hypersensitive pneumonitis

Question 10

A woman presents to you with fever, arthralgia, ulcers, fatigue for the past six months, and    new-onset hematuria. Urine examination reveals RBC casts and proteinuria. What is the likely    diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Lupus nephritis

Answer

Acute interstitial nephritis

Answer

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

Answer

IgA nephropathy

NEET-PG 2022 — Internal Medicine