NEET-PG 2019 Practice Questions

Q: Cholecystocaval line:-

Separate right and left hepatic lobes. ***Separate right and left hepatic lobes*** - The **cholecystocaval line**, also known as **Cantlie's line**, is an imaginary plane that divides the **anatomical right and left lobes** of the liver [1]. - This line runs from the **gallbladder fossa** anteriorly to the **inferior vena cava (IVC)** posteriorly. *Separate left medial and left lateral sectors* - The division between the **left medial (segment IV)** and **left lateral (segments II and III)** sectors of the liver is demarcated by the **left hepatic vein** or the falciform ligament internally [3], [4]. - The cholecystocaval line's primary function is not to separate these specific left lobe sectors. *Separate right anterior and right posterior sectors* - The division between the **right anterior (segments V and VIII)** and **right posterior (segments VI and VII)** sectors of the liver is typically defined by the **right hepatic vein** [2]. - This anatomical landmark is distinct from the cholecystocaval line. *Separate gall bladder from portal vein* - The cholecystocaval line is a plane that **originates from the gallbladder**, but it divides the liver parenchyma rather than separating the gallbladder itself from the portal vein. - The gallbladder is a separate organ adjacent to the liver, and the portal vein is a major vessel within the liver parenchyma [1].

Q: In case of LPL deficiency, which of the following will increase after a fat rich diet?

Chylomicron. ***Chylomicron*** - **LPL (lipoprotein lipase)** is crucial for the breakdown of **chylomicrons** and VLDL. A deficiency leads to an accumulation of undigested chylomicrons in the bloodstream after a fat-rich meal. - **Chylomicrons** transport dietary triglycerides from the intestines to tissues. Without LPL, these triglycerides remain packaged in chylomicrons. *LDL* - **LDL (low-density lipoprotein)** levels are not directly increased by a short-term fat-rich diet in the context of LPL deficiency. LDL primarily carries cholesterol and is formed from VLDL remnants, a process that is also impaired by LPL deficiency indirectly. - While chronic LPL deficiency can affect overall lipid metabolism, the immediate post-meal increase is not in LDL but in triglyceride-rich lipoproteins. *HDL* - **HDL (high-density lipoprotein)** is involved in reverse cholesterol transport and is generally not directly increased after a fat-rich diet, especially in LPL deficiency. - In fact, severe hypertriglyceridemia, often seen in LPL deficiency, can sometimes lead to lower HDL levels due to altered lipid exchange. *Lipoprotein (a)* - **Lipoprotein (a)**, or Lp(a), is a genetically determined lipoprotein similar to LDL but with an added apolipoprotein (a) and its levels are not acutely affected by dietary fat intake or LPL deficiency. - Lp(a) levels are determined primarily by genetic factors and do not participate in the post-prandial handling of dietary fats.

Q: Identify the condition in the image

Vitiligo. ***Correct: Vitiligo*** - This image shows **patches of depigmented skin** (white areas) characteristic of vitiligo, often seen in a **segmental or generalized pattern**. - Vitiligo is an **autoimmune condition** where melanocytes are destroyed, leading to loss of skin color. - Patches typically have a **progressive course** and can appear at any age. *Incorrect: Leukoderma* - Leukoderma is a **general term** for any condition causing white patches on the skin due to reduced or lost pigmentation. - While vitiligo is a type of leukoderma, this answer is too broad and not the **most specific diagnosis** for the pattern shown. - In clinical practice, we diagnose the specific type (vitiligo) rather than using the generic term. *Incorrect: Piebaldism* - Piebaldism is a **rare genetic disorder** characterized by a **stable white forelock** (unpigmented hair) and often a congenital white patch on the forehead. - Unlike vitiligo, these patches are usually **present at birth** and do not progress. - The distribution pattern is typically **midline** with characteristic forehead involvement. *Incorrect: DLE* - DLE stands for **Discoid Lupus Erythematosus**, which is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin. - It typically presents as **red, scaly, disk-shaped plaques** that can lead to scarring, atrophy, and permanent hair loss. - Would show **erythema, scaling, and scarring** rather than pure depigmentation as seen here.

Q: A child with history of fever, photosensitivity, rash sparing nasolabial fold presents to OP. Identify the condition?

SLE. ***SLE*** - The combination of **fever**, **photosensitivity**, and a **rash sparing the nasolabial folds** (malar rash or butterfly rash) is highly characteristic of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). - Childhood-onset SLE can present with similar mucocutaneous and systemic features as adult-onset disease. *Polymorphous light eruption* - This condition is primarily characterized by **photosensitive skin lesions** but typically does not involve systemic symptoms like fever. - While it presents with rash in sun-exposed areas, it generally lacks the distinct malar rash appearance and systemic involvement seen in SLE. *Discoid lupus* - Discoid lupus is a form of **cutaneous lupus** characterized by chronic, scaly, disfiguring plaques, often on the face and scalp. - It usually **lacks systemic symptoms** like fever and does not present as a widespread malar rash sparing nasal folds. *Skin tuberculosis* - Skin tuberculosis (lupus vulgaris or scrofuloderma) presents with **nodular, plaque-like lesions** or cold abscesses, often with ulceration and scarring. - It is not typically associated with **photosensitivity** or a malar rash, and fever, if present, is usually due to systemic Mycobacterium infection.

Q: The most common cause of proptosis in adults:-

Thyroid eye disease. ***Thyroid eye disease*** - **Thyroid eye disease (TED)**, also known as Graves' ophthalmopathy, is the most common cause of **proptosis** in adults. - It results from an autoimmune process leading to inflammation and expansion of the **extraocular muscles** and orbital fat, which pushes the eyeball forward. *Preseptal cellulitis* - **Preseptal cellulitis** is an infection of the eyelid and periorbital tissue anterior to the orbital septum, typically presenting with **eyelid swelling** and redness. - While it causes periorbital swelling, it generally does not cause true **proptosis**, which is the anterior displacement of the eyeball itself. *Capillary hemangioma* - **Capillary hemangiomas** are benign vascular tumors and are the most common orbital tumor in **infancy and childhood**, not adults. - They typically cause proptosis in young children, often presenting as a **reddish-blue mass** that may increase in size with crying. *Orbital cellulitis* - **Orbital cellulitis** is a serious infection of the tissues within the orbit, posterior to the orbital septum, which can cause **proptosis**, pain, and ophthalmoplegia. - While it is a cause of proptosis, it is an **acute infectious process** and not the most common overall cause of proptosis in the adult population compared to thyroid eye disease.

Q: Scaphoid fracture which area has maximum chances of AVN/Non-union/Malunion:-

Proximal 1/3. ***Proximal 1/3*** - The **proximal pole of the scaphoid** has a precarious blood supply, primarily from retrograde extraosseous vessels entering distally. A fracture in this region can compromise this supply, leading to **avascular necrosis (AVN)**. - Due to the limited blood flow to the proximal fragment, healing is often impaired, increasing the risk of **non-union** and **malunion**. *Distal 1/3* - Fractures in the **distal 1/3 (distal pole)** of the scaphoid typically have a better prognosis. - This area has a more robust blood supply, reducing the risk of AVN and promoting faster healing. *Scaphoid Tubercle fracture* - Fractures of the **scaphoid tubercle** are usually considered stable and intra-articular, with a good blood supply. - These fractures generally heal well with conservative treatment and have a very low incidence of AVN or non-union. *Middle 1/3* - Fractures in the **middle 1/3 (waist)** of the scaphoid are the most common but still pose a significant risk of non-union. - While the risk of AVN is lower than for proximal pole fractures, it is still higher than for distal fractures, due to the critical vascular supply to both fragments.

Q: What is the PRIMARY mechanism by which Interleukin-1 (IL-1) induces fever?

Endogenous pyrogen. ***Endogenous pyrogen*** - **IL-1** is a potent **endogenous pyrogen** that acts directly on the **hypothalamus**, the body's thermoregulatory center. - It stimulates the production of **prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)** in the hypothalamus, which then resets the body's thermoregulatory set point to a higher temperature, leading to fever. *Stimulates antibody production* - While IL-1 can have broader immune functions and can influence B cell activity, its **primary role in fever** production is not through antibody stimulation. - Antibody production is a function of **B lymphocytes** and is primarily driven by antigen presentation and T cell help. *Inhibits inflammation* - **IL-1** is a key **pro-inflammatory cytokine** that promotes inflammation, rather than inhibiting it. - It induces the expression of various adhesion molecules and inflammatory mediators, contributing to the inflammatory response. *Activates complement cascade* - The **complement cascade** is a part of the innate immune system, typically activated by **antigen-antibody complexes** (classical pathway) or **microbial surfaces** (alternative and lectin pathways). - While IL-1 plays a role in overall immune responses, its direct mechanism for inducing fever does not primarily involve activating the complement system.

Q: Fast breathing in a 6-month-old infant is taken as:

>50 breaths/min. ***>50 breaths/min*** - For infants aged 2 to 12 months, a respiratory rate of **greater than 50 breaths per minute** is considered consistent with **tachypnea** or fast breathing. - This is an important indicator of respiratory distress, often used in clinical assessment frameworks like the **Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI)**. *>30 breaths/min* - A respiratory rate of **>30 breaths/min** would be considered fast breathing for an older child or adult, but it is within the normal range for an infant. - Normal respiratory rates are **higher in infants** and gradually decrease with age. *>60 breaths/min* - While a respiratory rate of **>60 breaths/min** is indeed fast and indicates severe respiratory distress, it is not the initial threshold for defining fast breathing in a 6-month-old infant. - This rate would suggest a more **severe clinical presentation** than simply "fast breathing." *>40 breaths/min* - A respiratory rate **>40 breaths/min** is typically considered fast breathing for children aged 1 to 5 years, but not for infants under 12 months. - For a 6-month-old, this rate is still within the **normal or upper-normal range**, depending on activity and state.

Q: Mechanism of action of teduglutide in short bowel syndrome:

GLP-2 analog that inhibits apoptosis. ***GLP-2 analog that inhibits apoptosis*** - **Teduglutide** is a synthetic analog of **glucagon-like peptide-2 (GLP-2)**, which is a naturally occurring human hormone [1]. - Its primary mechanism in **short bowel syndrome** involves promoting mucosal growth and inhibiting epithelial cell apoptosis, thereby enhancing nutrient absorption and gut adaptation. *GLP-1 analogs that inhibits apoptosis* - **GLP-1 analogs** like exenatide or liraglutide are primarily used for **type 2 diabetes mellitus** to stimulate insulin secretion and suppress glucagon [2]. - While they can have some effects on gut motility, their main role is not in promoting mucosal growth or inhibiting apoptosis in the context of short bowel syndrome. *HT1A inhibitor* - **HT1A inhibitors** (5-HT1A receptor antagonists) are typically involved in modulating serotonin pathways, often with applications in conditions like **anxiety** or **depression**. - There is no known direct link between HT1A inhibition and the treatment of short bowel syndrome. *C-peptide analogs* - **C-peptide** is a byproduct of insulin production and has been studied for potential roles in preventing diabetes complications, particularly in relation to **microvascular complications** [3], [4]. - It does not play a direct role as a therapeutic agent for promoting intestinal adaptation or inhibiting apoptosis in short bowel syndrome.

Q: Degloving injury involves separation of:-

Skin + Fascia + Subcutaneous tissue. ***Skin + Fascia + Subcutaneous tissue*** - A **degloving injury** involves the traumatic separation of skin, subcutaneous tissue, and **superficial fascia** from the underlying deep fascia and muscle structures. - The separation typically occurs at the plane between the **superficial fascia** and **deep fascia**, creating the characteristic "degloved" appearance with loss of multiple tissue layers. *Skin + Subcutaneous tissue* - This option is incomplete as it fails to explicitly mention the **superficial fascia** component that is also involved in degloving injuries. - While anatomically the subcutaneous tissue includes fascial elements, the complete description should specifically include **fascia** as a separate component. *Skin* - This option is severely incomplete as degloving injuries involve much more than just the **epidermal and dermal layers**. - A true degloving injury must include separation of the **subcutaneous tissue** and **superficial fascia** to create the characteristic tissue defect. *Everything above from bone* - This description is too extensive and would represent a **complex avulsion** or **near-amputation** rather than a typical degloving injury. - Degloving specifically refers to separation at the **superficial-deep fascial plane**, not removal of all overlying tissues including muscle and deep fascia.

Question 1

Cholecystocaval line:-

Accepted Answer

Separate right and left hepatic lobes

Answer

Separate left medial and left lateral sectors

Answer

Separate right anterior and right posterior sectors

Answer

Separate gall bladder from portal vein

Question 2

In case of LPL deficiency, which of the following will increase after a fat rich diet?

Accepted Answer

Chylomicron

Answer

LDL

Answer

HDL

Answer

Lipoprotein (a)

Question 3

Identify the condition in the image

Accepted Answer

Vitiligo

Answer

Leukoderma

Answer

Piebaldism

Answer

DLE

Question 4

A child with history of fever, photosensitivity, rash sparing nasolabial fold presents to OP. Identify the condition?

Accepted Answer

SLE

Answer

Polymorphous light eruption

Answer

Discoid lupus

Answer

Skin tuberculosis

Question 5

The most common cause of proptosis in adults:-

Accepted Answer

Thyroid eye disease

Answer

Preseptal cellulitis

Answer

Capillary hemangioma

Answer

Orbital cellulitis

Question 6

Scaphoid fracture which area has maximum chances of AVN/Non-union/Malunion:-

Accepted Answer

Proximal 1/3

Answer

Distal 1/3

Answer

Scaphoid Tubercle fracture

Answer

Middle 1/3

Question 7

What is the PRIMARY mechanism by which Interleukin-1 (IL-1) induces fever?

Accepted Answer

Endogenous pyrogen

Answer

Stimulates antibody production

Answer

Inhibits inflammation

Answer

Activates complement cascade

Question 8

Fast breathing in a 6-month-old infant is taken as:

Accepted Answer

>50 breaths/min

Answer

>30 breaths/min

Answer

>60 breaths/min

Answer

>40 breaths/min

Question 9

Mechanism of action of teduglutide in short bowel syndrome:

Accepted Answer

GLP-2 analog that inhibits apoptosis

Answer

HT1A inhibitor

Answer

C-peptide analog

Answer

GLP-1 analog that inhibits apoptosis

Question 10

Degloving injury involves separation of:-

Accepted Answer

Skin + Fascia + Subcutaneous tissue

Answer

Skin

Answer

Everything above from bone

Answer

Skin + Subcutaneous tissue

NEET-PG 2019

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery