A high-riding prostate is indicative of which injury?
Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung disease is incorrect?
A 70 year old male complaining of per rectal bleeding was diagnosed with rectal/anorectal cancer. The distal margin of the tumor was 5 cm from the anal verge. The treatment of choice would be -
A 55 year old woman presented with history of recurrent episodes of right upper abdominal pain for the last one year. She presented to emergency with history of jaundice and fever for 2 days. On examination, the patient appeared toxic and had a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. She was started on intravenous antibiotics. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of stones in the common bile duct. What would be the best treatment option for her -
Which of the following is true about Mallory-Weiss tear -
What is the most important presenting feature of periampullary carcinoma?
What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?
All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -
Which of the following is NOT a feature of membranous urethral injury?
What is the optimal timing for administering antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A high-riding prostate is indicative of which injury?
- A. Extraperitoneal Bladder rupture
- B. Intraperitoneal Bladder Rupture
- C. Membranous Urethral Injury (Correct Answer)
- D. Bulbar Urethral Injury
Explanation: ***Membranous Urethral Injury*** - A **high-riding prostate** is a classic sign of **membranous urethral injury**, often resulting from **pelvic fractures**. - The disruption of the **urethra** above the perineal membrane causes the prostate to be displaced superiorly and appear "high." *Extraperitoneal Bladder rupture* - This typically occurs with **pelvic fractures** and involves urine leaking into the **retropubic space**. - While associated with pelvic trauma, it does not directly cause a high-riding prostate; the bladder itself may be ruptured, but the relative position of the prostate is not significantly altered. *Intraperitoneal Bladder Rupture* - This type of rupture usually results from a direct blow to a **full bladder** and involves urine extravasating into the **peritoneal cavity**. - It does not cause a high-riding prostate, as the injury is to the dome of the bladder, not the structures supporting the prostate. *Bulbar Urethral Injury* - A **bulbar urethral injury** usually results from a **straddle injury** and is located in the anterior urethra. - This type of injury does not affect the anatomical position of the prostate, which is posterior and superior to the bulbar urethra.
Question 32: Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung disease is incorrect?
- A. The non-peristaltic affected segment is dilated (Correct Answer)
- B. Absence of ganglion cells in the involved segment
- C. Mainly presents in infancy
- D. Swenson, Duhamel, and Soave are surgical procedures for this condition
Explanation: ***The non-peristaltic affected segment is dilated*** - In Hirschsprung disease, the **aganglionic segment** is typically **constricted** and **narrow**, not dilated, due to continuous contraction without relaxation. - The healthy colon proximal to the affected segment becomes dilated due to the obstruction caused by the constricted, aganglionic segment. *Absence of Ganglion cells in the involved segment* - This statement is **correct**. Hirschsprung disease is fundamentally characterized by the **absence of intramural ganglion cells** (Meissner and Auerbach plexuses) in a segment of the distal colon. - This aganglionosis results in a failure of relaxation and normal peristalsis in the affected bowel segment. *Swenson, Duhamel, and Soave are surgical procedures for this condition* - This statement is **correct**. These are the classic and most common **pull-through surgical procedures** used to treat Hirschsprung disease. - They involve resecting the aganglionic segment and pulling the normal, ganglionated bowel down to the anus. *Mainly presents in infancy* - This statement is **correct**. Hirschsprung disease is primarily a **congenital condition** and is typically diagnosed in newborns and infants. - Common presenting symptoms include **failure to pass meconium** within the first 24-48 hours of life, abdominal distension, and bilious vomiting.
Question 33: A 70 year old male complaining of per rectal bleeding was diagnosed with rectal/anorectal cancer. The distal margin of the tumor was 5 cm from the anal verge. The treatment of choice would be -
- A. Palliative Radiotherapy
- B. Low anterior resection (Correct Answer)
- C. Local Excision
- D. Abdominoperineal resection
Explanation: ***Low anterior resection*** - A tumor located 5 cm from the anal verge is considered a **low rectal tumor**, which is typically amenable to a **low anterior resection** with sphincter preservation. - This procedure aims for complete tumor removal while preserving anal function, which is often achievable when the distal margin allows for a safe distal resection margin (usually 1-2 cm). *Palliative Radiotherapy* - This is typically reserved for patients with advanced, **unresectable disease** or those who are not candidates for surgery due to comorbidities, aiming to alleviate symptoms rather than cure. - The scenario describes a potentially resectable tumor, making curative surgery the preferred initial approach. *Abdominoperineal resection* - This procedure involves the removal of the rectum, anus, and creation of a permanent colostomy, typically reserved for very **low rectal tumors** that are extremely close to or involve the anal sphincter, and cannot safely achieve a negative distal margin with sphincter preservation. - A tumor 5 cm from the anal verge usually allows for a sphincter-sparing procedure like low anterior resection. *Local Excision* - **Local excision (transanal excision)** is suitable for very superficial, small, well-differentiated tumors without lymph node involvement, typically T1N0M0 tumors. - The question does not provide details on tumor depth or nodal status, but a 5 cm tumor usually indicates a need for a more comprehensive resection to ensure oncological clearance.
Question 34: A 55 year old woman presented with history of recurrent episodes of right upper abdominal pain for the last one year. She presented to emergency with history of jaundice and fever for 2 days. On examination, the patient appeared toxic and had a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. She was started on intravenous antibiotics. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of stones in the common bile duct. What would be the best treatment option for her -
- A. Open bile duct surgery for stone removal
- B. Lithotripsy for bile duct stones
- C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal)
- D. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and bile duct stone extraction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and bile duct stone extraction*** - The patient presents with **Reynolds' pentad** (Charcot's triad - right upper abdominal pain, jaundice, fever - plus hypotension and toxic appearance/altered mental status), indicating severe acute **cholangitis with septic shock** due to common bile duct stones. - **ERCP with stone extraction** is the most appropriate initial treatment in this unstable patient to achieve rapid biliary decompression and remove the obstruction, which is life-saving in septic cholangitis. - This minimally invasive approach provides urgent drainage while minimizing surgical stress in a critically ill patient. *Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal)* - While cholecystectomy addresses gallbladder stones, it does not directly remove **common bile duct stones** causing the current acute cholangitis. - Performing cholecystectomy alone in an acutely septic patient would not resolve the immediate life-threatening biliary obstruction. - Cholecystectomy can be considered later (interval cholecystectomy) after stabilization and ERCP. *Open bile duct surgery for stone removal* - This is a more invasive procedure with higher morbidity and mortality compared to ERCP for initial management of common bile duct stones, especially in an acutely ill, hemodynamically unstable patient. - **Open surgery** is typically reserved for cases where ERCP fails or is not feasible, or for complex cases requiring biliary reconstruction. *Lithotripsy for bile duct stones* - **Lithotripsy** (fragmenting stones) is not appropriate for initial management of acute cholangitis with sepsis, as it does not provide immediate biliary drainage. - It might be considered as an adjunct for very large or impacted stones during ERCP, but it's not the primary immediate treatment in this emergency setting.
Question 35: Which of the following is true about Mallory-Weiss tear -
- A. It is a mucosal tear not extending through the muscle layer (Correct Answer)
- B. It is more common in women than men
- C. It is common in young individuals
- D. It is associated with achalasia cardia
Explanation: ***It is a mucosal tear not extending through the muscle layer*** - A **Mallory-Weiss tear** is defined as a longitudinal tear in the **mucosa** of the distal esophagus or proximal stomach. - These tears typically do not extend through the **muscularis propria** layer, distinguishing them from a Boerhaave syndrome, which is a full-thickness rupture. *It is more common in women than men* - Mallory-Weiss tears show a **male predominance** with a male-to-female ratio of approximately 2-4:1. - Risk factors like **alcohol use disorder** and forceful vomiting are more common in males, contributing to this gender distribution. *It is common in young individuals* - Mallory-Weiss tears are more common in **middle-aged to older individuals**, typically between 40 and 60 years old. - The condition is rare in young children or teenagers. *It is associated with achalasia cardia* - While both conditions affect the esophagus, there is **no direct causal association** between Mallory-Weiss tears and **achalasia cardia**. - Achalasia is a motility disorder, whereas Mallory-Weiss tears are caused by sudden increases in intra-abdominal pressure.
Question 36: What is the most important presenting feature of periampullary carcinoma?
- A. Jaundice (Correct Answer)
- B. Abdominal Pain
- C. Unintentional Weight Loss
- D. Palpable Abdominal Mass
Explanation: ***Jaundice*** - **Painless obstructive jaundice** is the hallmark symptom, occurring early due to the tumor's proximity to the common bile duct. - The obstruction of bile flow leads to the accumulation of **bilirubin**, causing yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes. *Abdominal Pain* - While **abdominal pain** can occur, it is often a later symptom and is less specific than jaundice for early diagnosis. - Pain typically arises from tumor growth, invasion of surrounding structures, or pancreatic involvement. *Unintentional Weight Loss* - **Unintentional weight loss** is a common constitutional symptom of many advanced malignancies, including periampullary carcinoma. - However, it usually manifests at a later stage and is not the initial, specific presenting feature that prompts investigation. *Palpable Abdominal Mass* - A **palpable abdominal mass** is rare in early periampullary carcinoma, as these tumors are typically small and deeply seated. - Its presence usually indicates advanced disease with significant tumor burden or metastasis.
Question 37: What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?
- A. CA 19-9
- B. CA-125
- C. Alpha fetoprotein
- D. CEA (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CEA*** - Carcinoembryonic antigen (**CEA**) is a well-established tumor marker for monitoring colorectal cancer post-surgery and assessing prognosis [1]. - Elevated **CEA levels** after surgery may indicate recurrence or residual disease, making it valuable in follow-up care [1]. *CA 19-9* - Primarily associated with **pancreatic** and **biliary tract cancers**, and not specific for colon carcinoma. - While it may elevate in some gastrointestinal malignancies, it is not the best indicator for prognosis after colon cancer surgery. *Alpha fetoprotein* - Mostly used for monitoring **hepatocellular carcinoma** and germ cell tumors, not colorectal malignancies. - Elevated levels are not typically correlated with prognosis in colon cancer patients. *CA-125* - Mainly utilized as a tumor marker for **ovarian cancer** and some other malignancies, not specifically for colon carcinoma. - Its use in colorectal cancer prognosis is limited and lacks relevance in this context. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 253-254.
Question 38: All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -
- A. Ivor Lewis Approach
- B. McKeown's Approach
- C. Transhiatal removal
- D. Sistrunk operation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sistrunk operation*** - The **Sistrunk operation** is a surgical procedure specifically designed for the removal of a **thyroglossal duct cyst**, not for esophageal carcinoma. - This procedure involves excising the cyst along with the central portion of the hyoid bone and the tract leading to the foramen cecum to prevent recurrence. *Ivor Lewis Approach* - The **Ivor Lewis approach** is a common and established surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, involving both abdominal and right thoracic incisions for tumor resection and reconstruction. - It is often used for tumors in the mid to distal esophagus. *Mckeown's Approach* - The **McKeown's approach** is another well-known surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, typically used for more proximal esophageal tumors. - This involves three incisions: abdominal, right thoracic, and cervical, allowing for extensive lymphadenectomy. *Transhiatal removal* - **Transhiatal esophagectomy** is a surgical option for esophageal cancer that involves abdominal and cervical incisions without a thoracic incision. - This approach is often favored in patients with significant comorbidities who may not tolerate a full thoracotomy.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT a feature of membranous urethral injury?
- A. blood at the meatus
- B. Retention of urine
- C. Pelvic fracture
- D. Perineal butterfly hematoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Perineal butterfly hematoma*** - A **perineal butterfly hematoma** is more characteristic of an injury to the **anterior urethra**, specifically the bulbar urethra, often caused by a straddle injury. - It occurs due to the extravasation of blood into the subcutaneous tissue of the perineum, outlining the shape of a butterfly. *blood at the meatus* - **Blood at the meatus** is a classic sign of urethral injury, regardless of the segment (anterior or posterior). - It indicates disruption of the urethral mucosa and bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. *Retention of urine* - **Retention of urine** can occur due to either a complete or partial urethral transection, preventing normal urine flow. - The inability to void can lead to bladder distension and is a significant symptom in assessing urethral trauma severity. *Pelvic fracture* - **Pelvic fractures** are frequently associated with **membranous urethral injuries** because the membranous urethra is fixed within the pelvic ring. - Shear forces from pelvic trauma can cause the prostatomembranous junction to avulse.
Question 40: What is the optimal timing for administering antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?
- A. Immediately before induction of anesthesia
- B. 30-60 minutes before incision (Correct Answer)
- C. 2-3 hours before surgery
- D. Immediately after surgery
Explanation: ***30-60 minutes before incision*** - This is the **optimal timing** recommended by WHO, CDC, and major surgical guidelines for most commonly used prophylactic antibiotics (cefazolin, cefuroxime). - Ensures **peak tissue and serum concentrations** are achieved at the time of incision, providing maximum protection against surgical site infections. - Based on **pharmacokinetic principles**: the antibiotic must be present at bactericidal concentrations in tissues when bacterial contamination occurs. - Studies show this timing significantly reduces surgical site infection rates compared to other timings. *Immediately before induction of anesthesia* - While acceptable in some protocols, this may be too early if there is a delay between induction and incision. - Could result in **declining antibiotic levels** by the time the incision is made, especially for antibiotics with shorter half-lives. *2-3 hours before surgery* - This is **too early** for most antibiotics. - Tissue levels may have already **declined below therapeutic concentrations** by the time of incision. - Does not provide adequate protection during the critical period of bacterial contamination. *Immediately after surgery* - This is **treatment, not prophylaxis**. - Offers **no preventive benefit** against intraoperative contamination. - By this time, bacteria introduced during surgery have already adhered to tissues and begun forming biofilms.