NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?

Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.. **Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.** - In **smooth muscle**, the **myosin light chain (MLC)** must be phosphorylated by **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)** to enable interaction with actin and initiate contraction. - This phosphorylation causes a conformational change in the **myosin head**, increasing its ATPase activity and allowing cross-bridge cycling. *Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.* - **Calmodulin (CaM)** is crucial for smooth muscle contraction, as it binds **calcium ions (Ca²⁺)** forming a Ca²⁺-CaM complex. - This complex then activates **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)**, which phosphorylates myosin, triggering contraction. *None of the options.* - This statement is incorrect because one of the provided options, "Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction," is indeed true. *Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.* - Unlike **striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac)**, **smooth muscle** does not contain **troponin**. - Regulation of smooth muscle contraction is primarily **calcium-calmodulin-dependent**, with roles for **MLCK** and **MLCP**, rather than troponin.

Q: What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?

Central motor pathways. ***Central motor pathways*** - **Motor evoked potentials (MEPs)** are generated by electrical or magnetic stimulation of the **motor cortex** and primarily assess the integrity of **central motor pathways**, specifically the **corticospinal tracts**. - MEPs are the **gold standard** for monitoring **upper motor neuron** function during neurosurgical and spinal procedures. - The technique is most sensitive to dysfunction in the **brain and spinal cord** (central nervous system), making this their primary clinical utility. *Peripheral motor pathways* - While MEPs do eventually activate peripheral motor neurons to produce muscle responses, they are **not the primary tool** for assessing peripheral pathways. - **Nerve conduction studies (NCS)** and **electromyography (EMG)** are direct and more specific measures for evaluating peripheral motor nerve function. *Both central and peripheral motor pathways* - Although MEPs provide information about the entire motor pathway from cortex to muscle, their **primary diagnostic strength and clinical application** is in detecting dysfunction within the **central nervous system**. - The latency and amplitude of MEPs are most sensitive to **conduction abnormalities along the corticospinal tract**, not peripheral nerves. *Muscle regeneration* - MEPs do **not assess muscle regeneration** or intrinsic muscle health. - **Electromyography (EMG)** with needle examination and **muscle biopsy** are the appropriate methods to evaluate muscle regeneration and myopathic processes.

Q: What is the primary function of the myenteric plexus?

Regulating motility. ***Regulating motility*** - The myenteric plexus, also known as **Auerbach's plexus**, is primarily responsible for coordinating the **rhythmic contractions** and **relaxation of the gastrointestinal (GI) smooth muscle**. - Its strategic location between the **longitudinal and circular muscle layers** allows it to directly influence the strength and frequency of peristalsis, thus regulating the movement of food through the digestive tract. *Regulating GI secretion* - While it has some indirect influence, the **submucosal plexus** (Meissner's plexus) is the primary neural network regulating **secretory functions** of the GI tract. - The myenteric plexus's main role is more directly related to muscle contraction and relaxation rather than glandular secretion. *Regulating local blood flow* - Local blood flow in the GI tract is primarily regulated by the **sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems**, along with local metabolic factors and hormones. - The myenteric plexus has a minimal direct role in the control of **GI blood vessel smooth muscle**. *Regulating absorption* - Absorption is primarily a function of the **intestinal epithelial cells** and is regulated by various transport mechanisms, hormones, and local factors. - While the enteric nervous system influences mucosal function indirectly, the myenteric plexus's primary role is **motor control** rather than directly regulating nutrient absorption processes.

Q: Intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly increased by?

Calcitriol. ***Calcitriol*** - **Calcitriol** (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3) is the hormonally active form of vitamin D, which is essential for increasing **calcium absorption** from the intestines. - It stimulates the synthesis of **calcium-binding proteins** in intestinal epithelial cells, facilitating active transport of calcium. *Parathormone* - **Parathormone (PTH)** primarily regulates calcium by increasing its reabsorption in the **kidneys** and stimulating its release from **bones**. - While it indirectly promotes calcitriol synthesis, its *direct* effect on intestinal calcium absorption is minimal compared to calcitriol. *Glucocorticoids* - **Glucocorticoids** generally have an *inhibitory* effect on calcium absorption in the intestine and can also increase renal excretion of calcium. - Prolonged use can lead to **osteoporosis** due to their negative impact on bone formation and calcium balance. *ACTH* - **ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)** primarily stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce **cortisol** and other glucocorticoids. - It has **no direct role** in regulating calcium absorption from the intestines.

Q: 'Flare' in Triple response is mediated by :

Axon reflex. ***Axon reflex*** - The "flare" component of the triple response is caused by an **axon reflex**, where sensory nerve endings release **vasoactive neuropeptides** such as substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP). - These neuropeptides cause **vasodilation** in the surrounding area, leading to the characteristic red, irregularly shaped halo around the wheal. *Arteriolar dilation* - While arteriolar dilation is a component of the triple response and contributes to the **redness (flush)** and **flare**, it is not the direct mediator of the flare itself. - The initial arteriolar dilation is primarily due to **histamine** acting directly on the vessels, whereas the flare is a broader, neurally mediated spread of vasodilation. *Histamine release* - **Histamine** release from mast cells is the primary mediator of the initial **redness (flush)** and the formation of the **wheal** (swelling due to capillary permeability). - While histamine plays a role in the overall response, it does not directly mediate the "flare" component, which involves neuronal signaling via the axon reflex. *Local hormones* - While various **local mediators** (which could be broadly considered "local hormones" in a sense) are involved in inflammatory responses, the specific term "local hormones" is too general and does not precisely describe the mechanism of the flare. - The axon reflex, involving specific **neuropeptides**, is the precise mechanism for the flare, not a general category of local hormones.

Q: Aortic valve closure occurs in which part of cardiac cycle?

Beginning of isovolumetric relaxation. ***Beginning of isovolumetric relaxation*** - Aortic valve closure marks the end of **ventricular systole** and the start of **isovolumetric relaxation**, as blood ceases to be ejected and the ventricle begins to relax while remaining closed. - This event corresponds to the **second heart sound (S2)** and signifies the beginning of a period where ventricular volume remains constant, but pressure drops. *Beginning of isovolumetric contraction* - This phase begins with the closure of the **mitral and tricuspid valves** (first heart sound, S1), as ventricular pressure rises but volume remains constant before ejection. - The aortic valve is still closed at this point, as ventricular pressure is not yet high enough to open it. *Beginning of ventricular ejection* - This phase begins when the **aortic valve opens** as ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, allowing blood to be ejected from the left ventricle. - Aortic valve closure occurs *after* ejection, not at its beginning. *During rapid ventricular filling* - Rapid ventricular filling occurs when the **mitral valve opens** (following isovolumetric relaxation), allowing blood to flow from the atria into the ventricles. - During this phase, the aortic valve is closed, but its closure happened earlier, at the beginning of isovolumetric relaxation.

Q: In an ECG the cardiac event corresponding to the ST segment is:

Ventricular repolarisation. ***Ventricular repolarisation*** - The **ST segment** represents the **early phase of ventricular repolarization**, corresponding to the **plateau phase (Phase 2)** of the ventricular action potential. - During this phase, the ventricles are completely depolarized and calcium influx balances potassium efflux, creating an isoelectric (flat) segment on the ECG. - The ST segment extends from the **end of the QRS complex (J point)** to the **beginning of the T wave**, after which rapid repolarization occurs. - Together, the **ST segment and T wave** represent the complete process of ventricular repolarization. *Atrial depolarisation* - **Atrial depolarization** is represented by the **P wave** on the ECG, not the ST segment. - This occurs first in the cardiac cycle, triggering atrial contraction and filling of the ventricles. *Ventricular depolarisation* - **Ventricular depolarization** is represented by the **QRS complex**, which immediately **precedes** the ST segment. - This event triggers ventricular contraction (systole) and occurs before the plateau phase. *Atrial repolarisation* - **Atrial repolarization** occurs during the QRS complex and is **obscured** by the much larger electrical signal from ventricular depolarization. - It is not visible as a separate deflection on the standard ECG.

Q: In zero gravity, the V/Q ratio is?

1. ***Correct: 1*** - In **zero gravity**, the normal physiological effects of gravity on both ventilation and perfusion are eliminated, leading to a more uniform distribution. - Without gravity, blood flow and gas distribution become more even throughout the lungs, resulting in a V/Q ratio that approaches **unity (1)** across all lung regions. - This represents the ideal physiological state where ventilation perfectly matches perfusion. *Incorrect: 0.8* - A V/Q ratio of **0.8** represents the **average normal V/Q ratio** in an upright individual on Earth, where gravity creates disparities in ventilation and perfusion. - This value is an average, with regional variations (apex ~3.3, base ~0.6) in the lungs; it does not reflect the uniform conditions of zero gravity. *Incorrect: 2* - A V/Q ratio of **2** would indicate a significant **ventilation-perfusion mismatch** where ventilation greatly exceeds perfusion. - This scenario suggests substantial **dead space ventilation**, which is not the expected outcome in a zero-gravity environment where distribution is balanced. *Incorrect: 3* - A V/Q ratio of **3** represents an even more extreme case of **ventilation exceeding perfusion**, indicating severe physiologic dead space. - Such a high V/Q ratio would signify a major functional impairment, which is contrary to the more ideal and uniform distribution expected in zero gravity.

Q: Which carrier pump is responsible for transporting solutes in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

Sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter. * **Sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter.** * This transporter, specifically the **Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporter (NKCC2)**, is highly expressed in the apical membrane of the thick ascending limb. * It actively reabsorbs **sodium, potassium, and chloride ions** from the filtrate, contributing significantly to the medullary interstitial osmotic gradient. * *NaCl- cotransporter* * The **NaCl cotransporter (NCC)** is primarily found in the **distal convoluted tubule**, not the thick ascending limb. * It reabsorbs sodium and chloride in a 1:1 ratio and is the target of thiazide diuretics. * *Na+-H+ exchanger* * The **Na+-H+ exchanger (NHE3)** is predominantly located in the **proximal tubule** where it plays a crucial role in bicarbonate reabsorption and acid-base balance. * While some NHE activity exists in other nephron segments, it is not the primary carrier in the thick ascending limb. * *Na+-K+ exchanger* * The **Na+-K+ exchanger** or **Na+/K+-ATPase pump** is located on the basolateral membrane of most renal tubular cells, including the thick ascending limb. * Its main function is to maintain the electrochemical gradient by pumping **sodium out of the cell** and potassium into the cell, which indirectly drives other transporters but is not the apical cotransporter responsible for initial solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb.

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?

Accepted Answer

Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.

Answer

None of the options.

Answer

Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.

Answer

Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.

Question 2

What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?

Accepted Answer

Central motor pathways

Answer

Both central and peripheral motor pathways

Answer

Muscle regeneration

Answer

Peripheral motor pathways

Question 3

What is the primary function of the myenteric plexus?

Accepted Answer

Regulating motility

Answer

Regulating GI secretion

Answer

Regulating local blood flow

Answer

Regulating absorption

Question 4

Intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly increased by?

Accepted Answer

Calcitriol

Answer

Parathormone

Answer

Glucocorticoids

Answer

ACTH

Question 5

'Flare' in Triple response is mediated by :

Accepted Answer

Axon reflex

Answer

Arteriolar dilation

Answer

Histamine release

Answer

Local hormones

Question 6

Aortic valve closure occurs in which part of cardiac cycle?

Accepted Answer

Beginning of isovolumetric relaxation

Answer

Beginning of isovolumetric contraction

Answer

During rapid ventricular filling

Answer

Beginning of ventricular ejection

Question 7

In an ECG the cardiac event corresponding to the ST segment is:

Accepted Answer

Ventricular repolarisation

Answer

Atrial depolarisation

Answer

Ventricular depolarisation

Answer

Atrial repolarisation

Question 8

What is the PRIMARY mechanism by which the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger functions in cardiac muscle cells?

Accepted Answer

Na+-Ca2+ exchanger acts to remove Ca2+ from heart muscle cells

Answer

Na+-Ca2+ exchanger requires ATP directly

Answer

The Na+-Ca2+ exchanger operates in reverse mode during normal cardiac contraction

Answer

The Na+-Ca2+ exchanger primarily moves Ca2+ into cardiac muscle cells during systole

Question 9

In zero gravity, the V/Q ratio is?

Accepted Answer

1

Answer

0.8

Answer

2

Answer

3

Question 10

Which carrier pump is responsible for transporting solutes in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

Accepted Answer

Sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter

Answer

NaCl cotransporter

Answer

Na+-H+ exchanger

Answer

Na+-K+ exchanger

NEET-PG 2015 — Physiology