NEET-PG 2015 — Pediatrics
37 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Newborns typically lose how much weight in the first week?
Which of the following is not found in DiGeorge's syndrome?
What is the typical lifespan of neonatal red blood cells (RBCs)?
Which of the following statements about the differences between human milk and cow milk is NOT true?
At what age group is Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia most commonly observed?
Which of the following statements about cephalhematoma is correct?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Kwashiorkor?
Most common type of TAPVC is -
Which of the following statements about shock in children is correct?
At what rate should dopamine be administered for inotropic support in a severely dehydrated child?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Newborns typically lose how much weight in the first week?
- A. 5-10% (Correct Answer)
- B. 1-2%
- C. 11-15%
- D. 15-20%
Explanation: ***5-10%*** - **Physiologic weight loss** of 5-10% of birth weight is normal in newborns during the first week of life. - This loss is primarily due to the **mobilization of extracellular fluid** and delayed onset of full milk production (lactogenesis). - Most infants regain their birth weight by **10-14 days** of age. *1-2%* - A weight loss of only 1-2% in the first week would be **less than expected** and might suggest the infant is retaining excess fluid. - While not necessarily pathological, it's at the **lower end of the normal range** and less typical than the 5-10% range. *11-15%* - A weight loss greater than **10%** is generally considered **excessive** and indicates inadequate feeding or possible dehydration. - Weight loss of 11-15% typically requires **closer monitoring**, feeding assessment, and possible lactation support or supplementation. *15-20%* - A weight loss of 15-20% is significantly **above the normal physiological range** and represents a serious concern for **severe dehydration** or inadequate nutritional intake. - This degree of weight loss would warrant **immediate medical evaluation** and intervention, including possible hospitalization.
Question 2: Which of the following is not found in DiGeorge's syndrome?
- A. Eczema (Correct Answer)
- B. Tetany
- C. T cell lymphopenia
- D. Mucocutaneous candidiasis
Explanation: ***Eczema*** - **Eczema** is NOT a recognized feature of **DiGeorge syndrome** (22q11.2 deletion syndrome). - While individuals with immunodeficiencies may experience various skin conditions, eczema is specifically associated with conditions like **Hyper-IgE syndrome, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome**, or atopic disorders, not DiGeorge's. - DiGeorge's follows the **CATCH-22 mnemonic**: Cardiac defects, Abnormal facies, Thymic hypoplasia, Cleft palate, Hypocalcemia, 22q11 deletion. *Tetany* - **Tetany IS found** in DiGeorge's syndrome due to **hypocalcemia** from parathyroid gland hypoplasia or aplasia. - The lack of parathyroid hormone leads to **low serum calcium levels**, resulting in increased neuromuscular excitability and tetany. *T cell lymphopenia* - **T-cell lymphopenia IS found** in DiGeorge's syndrome due to **thymic hypoplasia or aplasia**. - The primary immunological defect is **T-cell deficiency**, leading to increased susceptibility to viral, fungal, and intracellular bacterial infections. - B-cell numbers are typically normal, though antibody responses may be impaired due to lack of T-cell help. *Mucocutaneous candidiasis* - **This IS found** in patients with DiGeorge's syndrome as an opportunistic infection due to **T-cell immunodeficiency**. - The impaired **cellular immunity** makes individuals highly susceptible to fungal infections like *Candida albicans* affecting mucous membranes and skin.
Question 3: What is the typical lifespan of neonatal red blood cells (RBCs)?
- A. 120-150 days
- B. 150-200 days
- C. 60-90 days (Correct Answer)
- D. 90-120 days
Explanation: ***60-90 days*** - The typical lifespan of **neonatal red blood cells (RBCs)** is **60-90 days**, which is **shorter than adult RBCs** (120 days). - This reduced lifespan is due to **increased membrane fragility**, **higher metabolic rate**, and **immature enzyme systems** in neonatal erythrocytes. - Neonatal RBCs contain more **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** and have structural differences that contribute to their shorter survival. - This shorter lifespan contributes to the **physiological anemia of infancy** seen in the first few months of life. *90-120 days* - This range represents the typical lifespan of **adult RBCs**, not neonatal RBCs. - Neonatal RBCs have a **demonstrably shorter lifespan** compared to adult erythrocytes. - Confusing adult and neonatal RBC lifespans is a common error in clinical practice. *120-150 days* - This range is **longer than even adult RBC lifespan** (typically 120 days). - This would be **highly atypical** for any normal erythrocyte population. *150-200 days* - This represents an **abnormally prolonged** RBC lifespan not seen in normal physiology. - Such extended survival would suggest **pathological conditions** affecting RBC destruction or measurement error.
Question 4: Which of the following statements about the differences between human milk and cow milk is NOT true?
- A. Cow milk has comparatively more protein than human milk.
- B. Cow milk has comparatively more calcium than human milk.
- C. Cow milk has comparatively more casein than human milk.
- D. Cow milk has comparatively more fat than human milk. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cow milk has comparatively more fat than human milk.*** - This statement is **incorrect** and is the answer to this "NOT true" question. Human milk generally has a **higher fat content** (3.5-4.5 g/100mL) than cow milk (~3.5 g/100mL), which is crucial for the rapid neurological development of infants. - The fat in human milk is also more **bioavailable** due to the presence of lipases, aiding digestion and absorption. - Human milk contains essential **long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids (LCPUFAs)** like DHA and ARA that support brain and retinal development. *Cow milk has comparatively more protein than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk contains significantly **more protein** (~3.3 g/100mL) compared to human milk (~1.0 g/100mL), particularly **casein protein**. - While more protein might seem beneficial, the higher protein load in cow milk is harder for an **infant's immature kidneys** to process and increases renal solute load. *Cow milk has comparatively more calcium than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk contains approximately **120 mg/100mL calcium** compared to human milk which has about **30 mg/100mL**. - However, the **bioavailability** of calcium and the optimal calcium-to-phosphorus ratio in human milk favor better absorption despite the lower absolute amount. *Cow milk has comparatively more casein than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk has a **casein-to-whey ratio of 80:20**, while human milk has a ratio of approximately **40:60** (more whey). - The predominance of whey proteins in human milk makes it easier to digest, forming softer curds in the infant's stomach.
Question 5: At what age group is Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia most commonly observed?
- A. < 5 years (Correct Answer)
- B. 5 - 15 years
- C. 20 - 25 years
- D. 30 - 40 years
Explanation: ***< 5 years*** - *Streptococcus pneumoniae* pneumonia is particularly common and severe in **young children**, especially those under the age of 5, due to their developing immune systems. - This age group has a higher incidence of **invasive pneumococcal disease**, including pneumonia and meningitis, making vaccination crucial. *5 - 15 years* - While pneumonia can occur in this age group, it is **less common** than in very young children or older adults. - The immune system is generally more developed and effective at this age, leading to a **lower incidence** of severe pneumococcal infections. *20 - 25 years* - This age group generally has a robust immune system, making *Streptococcus pneumoniae* pneumonia **uncommon** unless there are underlying risk factors such as immunocompromise or chronic medical conditions. - Most cases of pneumonia in young adults are often due to **viral pathogens** or *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*. *30 - 40 years* - Similar to the 20-25 years age group, incidence of *Streptococcus pneumoniae* pneumonia remains **relatively low** in healthy individuals in their 30s and 40s. - Increased risk is typically associated with **chronic illnesses**, smoking, or conditions that weaken the immune system.
Question 6: Which of the following statements about cephalhematoma is correct?
- A. It is hemorrhage between the skull and periosteum (Correct Answer)
- B. It is hemorrhage within the subcutaneous tissue around the skull
- C. It is type of subdural hemorrhage
- D. It is subperiosteal bleeding in the skull
Explanation: ***It is hemorrhage between the skull and periosteum*** - A **cephalhematoma** is defined as a collection of blood between the **periosteum** and the underlying **skull bone** (subperiosteal). - Its boundaries are limited by the suture lines because the periosteum is firmly attached at these junctions, preventing blood from crossing. *It is hemorrhage within the subcutaneous tissue around the skull* - This description corresponds to a **caput succedaneum**, which involves **edema and hemorrhage** in the subcutaneous tissue, rather than between the skull and periosteum. - Unlike a cephalhematoma, a **caput succedaneum** can cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. *It is type of subdural hemorrhage* - A **subdural hemorrhage** involves bleeding between the **dura mater** and the **arachnoid mater** within the cranial vault. - This type of hemorrhage is a **neurological emergency** and is distinct from a cephalhematoma, which is an external scalp injury. *It is subperiosteal bleeding in the skull* - While this statement is technically correct (subperiosteal means under the periosteum), the **standard definition** specifically states "between the periosteum and the skull bone." - The distinction is important: **subperiosteal** could theoretically include bleeding within the periosteum itself, whereas the precise location is in the **potential space** between periosteum and bone. - Option A is more precise and is the preferred medical definition.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Kwashiorkor?
- A. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- B. Hair changes and depigmentation
- C. Edema
- D. Growth retardation
Explanation: ***Hypertension*** - **Hypertension** is generally **NOT a direct symptom** of Kwashiorkor; rather, children with Kwashiorkor often have **low blood pressure** due to overall cardiovascular system depression. - While chronic malnutrition can have various systemic effects, elevated blood pressure is not a characteristic clinical feature of this condition. - This is the correct answer as the question asks what is NOT a symptom. *Hair changes and depigmentation* - This is a **classic symptom** of Kwashiorkor, characterized by sparse, brittle hair that may be discolored (e.g., reddish or yellowish - "flag sign"). - These changes reflect the severe protein deficiency interfering with hair follicle function and melanin production. *Edema* - **Edema**, particularly in the lower extremities and face, is a **hallmark symptom** of Kwashiorkor, caused by severe protein deficiency leading to decreased oncotic pressure. - This results in fluid shifting from the intravascular space into the interstitial space. *Growth retardation* - **Growth retardation** (stunting) is a common and severe symptom of Kwashiorkor, reflecting the long-term impact of inadequate protein and energy intake on physical development. - Both height and weight are significantly below age-appropriate norms.
Question 8: Most common type of TAPVC is -
- A. Supracardiac (Correct Answer)
- B. Cardiac
- C. Infracardiac
- D. Multiple
Explanation: ***Supracardiac*** - This is the **most common type** of Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC), accounting for about 50% of cases. - Pulmonary veins drain into a **common vertical vein** that ascends to connect with the **innominate vein** or superior vena cava. *Cardiac* - In this type, the pulmonary veins drain directly into the **right atrium** or a coronary sinus. - It is relatively less common than the supracardiac type. *Infracardiac* - This is the **least common** and most severe type, where the pulmonary veins drain below the diaphragm, typically into the portal vein, ductus venosus, or inferior vena cava. - It is often associated with **pulmonary venous obstruction**, leading to cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension. *Multiple* - While it is possible to have anomalous drainage sites, **multiple sites** draining into different systemic veins are less common than a single primary site for TAPVC. - TAPVC is typically classified into specific anatomic types rather than 'multiple' as a primary category.
Question 9: Which of the following statements about shock in children is correct?
- A. Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children. (Correct Answer)
- B. Mottling of extremities is an early sign of shock.
- C. Confusion and stupor are early signs of shock.
- D. Respiratory rate is a more sensitive indicator of shock than heart rate.
Explanation: ***Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children.*** - **Tachycardia** is often the first and most reliable sign of **compensated shock** in children, as their cardiovascular system initially maintains cardiac output by increasing heart rate. - Children have a remarkable ability to compensate for significant fluid loss, and an elevated heart rate helps maintain **perfusion** before blood pressure drops. *Mottling of extremities is an early sign of shock.* - **Mottling** of extremities is typically a sign of **decompensated shock** and indicates significant vasoconstriction and poor tissue perfusion. - It is a **late sign** that suggests the child's compensatory mechanisms are failing. *Confusion and stupor are early signs of shock.* - **Altered mental status**, such as confusion or stupor, usually indicates **severe shock** and reduced cerebral perfusion. - These are generally **late signs** of shock, appearing after initial compensatory mechanisms have failed. *Respiratory rate is a more sensitive indicator of shock than heart rate.* - While **tachypnea** can be present in shock due to metabolic acidosis or compensatory mechanisms, **tachycardia** is a more consistently sensitive and earlier indicator of circulatory compromise. - Respiratory changes can also be influenced by other factors like pain, fever, or respiratory illness, making heart rate a more specific initial marker for shock.
Question 10: At what rate should dopamine be administered for inotropic support in a severely dehydrated child?
- A. 0.1-0.5 microgram/kg/min
- B. 1-5 microgram/kg/min (Correct Answer)
- C. 1-5 mg/kg/min
- D. 10-15 mg/kg/min
Explanation: ***1-5 microgram/kg/min*** - This dosage range of **dopamine** primarily targets **beta-1 adrenergic receptors**, leading to **increased myocardial contractility** (inotropic effect) and improved cardiac output. - It is appropriate for managing **hypotension** and poor perfusion in a severely dehydrated child after initial **fluid resuscitation** has been attempted but was insufficient. *0.1-0.5 microgram/kg/min* - This very low dose range of dopamine primarily stimulates **dopaminergic receptors** in the renal and mesenteric vascular beds. - Its main effect is **vasodilation** in these areas, which increases blood flow to the kidneys and gut, but it provides minimal to no **inotropic support**. *1-5 mg/kg/min* - This dosage is significantly too high, as it is in milligrams rather than micrograms. - Administering dopamine at this rate would lead to severe **toxicity**, including profound **tachycardia**, ventricular arrhythmias, and extreme **vasoconstriction**. *10-15 mg/kg/min* - This dopamine dosage is also excessively high, again due to being in milligrams per minute rather than micrograms per minute. - Such a dose would be **lethal**, causing catastrophic cardiovascular collapse due to overwhelming **alpha-adrenergic stimulation** and severe arrhythmias.