NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology Practice Questions

Q: Structure of chromosomes is studied by?

G-banding. ***G-banding*** - G-banding is the most commonly used method for the **detailed examination of chromosomes**, allowing visualization of banding patterns [1][2]. - It facilitates the identification of **chromosomal abnormalities** and is essential in **cytogenetic studies** [1][2]. *Q-banding* - Q-banding reveals a different pattern that is primarily used for **detection of specific chromosome markers** but is less common than G-banding. - It is more useful for cases requiring **fluorescent bright bands** but not for overall structural analysis. *C-banding* - C-banding specifically highlights the **centromeric regions** of chromosomes, not the overall structure. - It is limited in scope compared to G-banding since it doesn't provide a complete picture of chromosome morphology. *Brd V-staining* - Brd V-staining focuses on specific **DNA regions** and is related to the **visualization of viral DNA** in infected cells rather than chromosome structure. - It does not offer insights into the **general structural characteristics** of chromosomes like G-banding does. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 54-55. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 167-168.

Q: Reversible change from one cell type to another is known as -

Metaplasia. ***Metaplesia*** - Refers to the **reversible change** from one cell type to another in response to chronic irritation or damage [1][2]. - It often occurs as an adaptive response in **epithelial tissues**, such as in the respiratory tract in smokers [1][2]. *Hypertrophy* - Represents an **increase in cell size** rather than a change in cell type [2]. - It is often a response to increased functional demand, as seen in **cardiac muscle** in athletes. *Hyperplesia* - Refers to an **increase in cell number** within a tissue or organ, not a change in cell type [2]. - Common in conditions such as **benign prostatic hyperplasia** but does not involve differentiation into other cell types. *Dysplasia* - Indicates an **abnormal growth or development** of cells, leading to disordered morphology rather than a transformation into another cell type. - It is often a precursor to cancer but does not signify the reversible nature of metaplasia. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death, p. 49. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 85-92.

Q: Which of the following is an oncogene?

RAS. ***RAS*** - RAS is an **oncogene**, not a tumor suppressor gene; it promotes cell proliferation and survival [1]. - Mutations in RAS lead to uncontrolled cell division, contributing to various cancers. *p53* - p53 is a crucial **tumor suppressor gene** responsible for regulating the cell cycle and preventing tumor formation [1,2]. - It functions by inducing apoptosis in cells with damaged DNA, preventing their proliferation [2]. *WT-1* - WT-1 is a **tumor suppressor gene** associated with Wilms' tumor and regulates kidney and gonadal development. - It plays a role in cell growth and differentiation, preventing tumorigenesis when functioning correctly. *Rb* - The Rb gene encodes the **retinoblastoma protein**, a key tumor suppressor that regulates the cell cycle by inhibiting cell division [1,2]. - Loss of Rb function is primarily associated with retinoblastoma and other cancers, indicating its critical role in tumor suppression [1,2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 297-301. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 227-228.

Q: Carcinoma originating from glands is called?

Adenocarcinoma. ***Adenocarcinoma*** - Carcinoma that arises from **glandular epithelium** is specifically classified as adenocarcinoma [1]. - It often presents in organs like the **breast**, **prostate**, and **gastrointestinal tract** [4,5]. *Fibrosarcoma* - This is a **malignant tumor** derived from **fibrous connective tissue**, not glands. - Typically occurs in **soft tissues**, and is distinct from epithelial tumors like adenocarcinoma. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - Originates from **squamous epithelial cells** and primarily affects areas such as the **skin** and **mucous membranes** [2]. - It is not associated with glandular structures, differing markedly from adenocarcinoma. *Basal cell carcinoma* - Arises from **basal cells** in the **epidermis** (skin), not from glandular tissue. - It is the most common type of skin cancer and is largely not relevant to glandular origin. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 335-336. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 336-337. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 777-778. [4] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 348-349.

Q: Which protein is defective in dilated cardiomyopathy?

Dystrophin. ***Dystrophin*** - **Dystrophin** is a crucial protein in the **muscle cell membrane** that anchors the cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. - Defects in dystrophin lead to sarcolemmal fragility, causing muscle damage and can result in **dilated cardiomyopathy**, especially in conditions like **Duchenne muscular dystrophy** [1]. *Myosin* - **Myosin** is a fundamental **motor protein** involved in muscle contraction, forming the thick filaments. - While mutations in myosin can cause various cardiac conditions, like hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, direct primary defects in myosin are not typically identified as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy [2]. *Troponin* - **Troponin** is a protein complex that regulates muscle contraction by controlling the interaction between actin and myosin, particularly in response to calcium. - Although troponins are vital for cardiac function and are released during myocardial injury, their primary defect is not typically implicated in the etiology of dilated cardiomyopathy [2]. *Tropomyosin* - **Tropomyosin** is a protein that winds around actin filaments and, along with troponin, regulates the binding of myosin to actin. - While essential for muscle contraction, direct defects in tropomyosin are not a common genetic cause of dilated cardiomyopathy. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Peripheral Nerves and Skeletal Muscles, pp. 1244-1245. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 574.

Q: Lines of Zahn are LEAST likely to be seen in -

Lung. ***Lung*** - **Lines of Zahn are LEAST likely in the lungs** because most pulmonary thrombi are actually **emboli that formed elsewhere** (typically in deep leg veins) and then **lodged in pulmonary vessels**. - These pre-formed thrombi developed in **low-flow venous environments** and therefore **lack the characteristic layered appearance** of Lines of Zahn. - Even when thrombi form in situ in pulmonary vessels, the vascular bed characteristics make Lines of Zahn formation less common compared to other sites. *Heart* - **Mural thrombi** in heart chambers (especially post-MI in left ventricle or in atrial fibrillation) commonly show **Lines of Zahn**. - The **high-flow, turbulent environment** with continuous cardiac contractions creates ideal conditions for alternating platelet-fibrin and RBC layer deposition. - These are classic examples of antemortem thrombi with visible Lines of Zahn. *Liver* - **Portal vein thrombosis** and **hepatic vein thrombosis** (Budd-Chiari syndrome) can exhibit **Lines of Zahn**. - Despite being venous, these vessels have **sufficient flow velocity and turbulence** to allow layered thrombus formation. - Lines of Zahn indicate the thrombus formed during life with flowing blood. *Kidney* - **Renal artery thrombosis** and **renal vein thrombosis** frequently show **Lines of Zahn**. - Both arterial and venous renal circulation have adequate flow dynamics for layered thrombus formation. - These represent antemortem thrombi formed in vessels with active blood flow.

Q: Which of the following is a type of small vessel vasculitis?

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). ***Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)*** - GPA is a prototypic **ANCA-associated small vessel vasculitis** characterized by necrotizing granulomas and vasculitis [1], [2]. - It commonly involves the **upper and lower respiratory tracts** and the **kidneys** with necrotizing granulomatous inflammation [1], [2]. - Classified as small vessel vasculitis according to the **Chapel Hill Consensus Conference** classification. *Classical PAN* - This refers to **Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)**, which is a **medium-sized vessel vasculitis**. - PAN is characterized by multifocal inflammatory and necrotizing lesions of medium-sized muscular arteries, **not small vessels**. *Giant cell arteritis* - **Giant cell arteritis (GCA)** is a **large vessel vasculitis** that primarily affects the aorta and its major branches, particularly the temporal artery [3]. - Symptoms include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, reflecting the involvement of larger blood vessels [3]. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a clear example of a small vessel vasculitis. - There is a correct answer among the provided choices. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 519-520. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 536-537. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 515-516.

Q: Which type of white blood cell plays a primary role in cardiac remodeling and chronic inflammation in heart failure?

Macrophages. ***Macrophages*** - **Macrophages** are increasingly recognized for their critical role in the pathogenesis and progression of **heart failure**, contributing to **cardiac remodeling**, chronic inflammation, and fibrosis - They infiltrate failing myocardium and play dual roles: promoting both **inflammation** and **tissue repair** - Their activation state (M1 vs M2 phenotypes) can significantly influence cardiac function and prognosis in heart failure patients - They secrete **cytokines**, **growth factors**, and **matrix metalloproteinases** that contribute to ventricular remodeling *Eosinophils* - **Eosinophils** are primarily involved in **allergic reactions** and defense against **parasitic infections** - While they can contribute to inflammation in specific cardiac conditions (e.g., **eosinophilic myocarditis**, **Loeffler endocarditis**), they are not primarily associated with the general pathophysiology of chronic heart failure *T cells* - **T cells** are central to **adaptive immunity**, including cell-mediated responses and modulation of immune reactions - Though T cells play a role in inflammatory processes in certain forms of heart disease, particularly **viral myocarditis**, they are not the predominant immune cell driving chronic cardiac remodeling in heart failure *B cells* - **B cells** are responsible for producing **antibodies** and are key players in humoral immunity - While B cells can contribute to autoimmune forms of heart disease and certain inflammatory processes, they are not typically the primary immune cell associated with the progression of chronic heart failure

Q: What is the characteristic feature of neuropraxia?

No structural damage to the nerve. ***No structural damage to the nerve*** - **Neuropraxia** is the mildest form of nerve injury, characterized by a **temporary block in nerve conduction** without structural damage to the axon or surrounding connective tissues. - This typically results in **temporary sensory and/or motor deficits** that fully resolve within weeks to months. *Damage to the endoneurium* - Damage to the **endoneurium** would indicate a more severe injury, such as **axonotmesis**, where the axon is damaged but the connective tissue sheaths are preserved. - This level of injury suggests that wallerian degeneration would occur distal to the lesion, leading to **slower and incomplete recovery**. *Damage to the epineurium* - Damage to the **epineurium**, along with the endoneurium and perineurium, signifies **neurotmesis**, the most severe nerve injury. - This involves a **complete transection of the nerve**, requiring surgical intervention for any chance of functional recovery. *Damage to the axon* - Damage to the **axon** itself, often alongside preserved connective tissues, is characteristic of **axonotmesis**. - While recovery is possible through axonal regeneration, it is **slower and less complete** than in neuropraxia.

Question 1

Structure of chromosomes is studied by?

Accepted Answer

G-banding

Answer

C-banding

Answer

Q-banding

Answer

BrdU staining

Question 2

Reversible change from one cell type to another is known as -

Accepted Answer

Metaplasia

Answer

Hypertrophy

Answer

Dysplasia

Answer

Hyperplasia

Question 3

Which of the following is an oncogene?

Accepted Answer

RAS

Answer

WT-1

Answer

Rb

Answer

p53

Question 4

Carcinoma originating from glands is called?

Accepted Answer

Adenocarcinoma

Answer

Basal cell carcinoma

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer

Fibrosarcoma

Question 5

Which protein is defective in dilated cardiomyopathy?

Accepted Answer

Dystrophin

Answer

Tropomyosin

Answer

Myosin

Answer

Troponin

Question 6

Lines of Zahn are LEAST likely to be seen in -

Accepted Answer

Lung

Answer

Liver

Answer

Kidney

Answer

Heart

Question 7

Which of the following is a type of small vessel vasculitis?

Accepted Answer

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

Answer

Classical PAN

Answer

Giant cell arteritis

Answer

None of the options

Question 8

Which type of white blood cell plays a primary role in cardiac remodeling and chronic inflammation in heart failure?

Accepted Answer

Macrophages

Answer

Eosinophils

Answer

T cells

Answer

B cells

Question 9

What is the characteristic feature of neuropraxia?

Accepted Answer

No structural damage to the nerve

Answer

Damage to the endoneurium

Answer

Damage to the epineurium

Answer

Damage to the axon

Question 10

What is the key pathophysiological difference between acid and alkali injuries in terms of tissue necrosis?

Accepted Answer

Alkali injuries cause liquefactive necrosis

Answer

Acid injuries cause coagulative necrosis

Answer

Alkali injuries lead to deeper tissue damage

Answer

Acid injuries are less severe than alkali injuries

NEET-PG 2015 — Pathology