Irregular scarred kidney with pelvic dilatation is seen with?
Subepithelial deposits in the kidney are primarily associated with which condition?
Which chromosomal translocation is associated with follicular thyroid carcinoma?
All of the following are features of granulomatous thyroiditis except?
Sezary cells show which type of nucleus?
What does Prussian blue staining specifically detect in histology?
Homer-Wright rosette is seen in -
What does Ghon's focus indicate in the context of tuberculosis?
Fibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis is mediated by -
Which of the following markers is specific for gastro-intestinal stromal tumor (GIST)?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Irregular scarred kidney with pelvic dilatation is seen with?
- A. Chronic pyelonephritis (Correct Answer)
- B. Polycystic kidney
- C. Renal artery stenosis
- D. Tuberculosis of kidney
Explanation: ***Chronic pyelonephritis*** - Characterized by irregular scarring of the kidney and often leads to **pelvic dilatation** due to recurrent infections and obstruction [1]. - The damage from inflammation results in **cortical scarring** and can affect kidney function significantly over time [1]. *Renal artery stenosis* - Typically presents with **hypertension** and may lead to ischemic atrophy, but does not cause significant **pelvic dilatation**. - The kidney appears small and often asymmetric, but not typically irregular and scarred. *Tuberculosis of kidney* - Can cause damage to the kidney, but usually leads to **caseating granulomas** and can cause abscesses, not specifically irregular scarring with pelvic dilation. - Often presents with systemic symptoms such as fever and night sweats, along with hematuria. *Polycystic kidney* - Characterized by multiple cysts in both kidneys leading to enlarged kidneys, but does not typically present as **irregularly scarred kidneys**. - Usually associated with **hemodynamic issues** and hypertension but not pelvic dilatation in the sense of scarring or fibrosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 937-939.
Question 22: Subepithelial deposits in the kidney are primarily associated with which condition?
- A. None of these conditions are associated with subepithelial deposits.
- B. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN) Type I
- C. Goodpasture's Syndrome (GPS)
- D. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***PSGN*** - Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is characterized by **subepithelial immune complex deposits** [1], typically after a streptococcal infection [1]. - It is associated with **hematuria**, **edema**, and elevated **anti-streptolysin O (ASO)** titers. *GPS* - Minimal change disease (often referred to as idiopathic nephrotic syndrome) does not primarily feature **subepithelial deposits** but rather **effacement of podocyte foot processes**. - Clinical presentation includes **nephrotic syndrome** symptoms, not glomerulonephritis like PSGN. *MPGN-1* - Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type 1 includes **subendothelial deposits** rather than subepithelial deposits associated with PSGN. - Symptoms often include **nephritic syndrome** and is commonly linked with conditions like **HCV infection**. *All* - While several conditions can show **deposits in kidney**, not all are characterized by **subepithelial deposits**, hence this option is inaccurate. - Each type of glomerular disease has specific types of deposits (immune complex vs. complement) associated with their pathophysiology. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 914-916.
Question 23: Which chromosomal translocation is associated with follicular thyroid carcinoma?
- A. PAX8 - PPARγ (Correct Answer)
- B. ALK - NPM1
- C. ETV6 - NTRK3
- D. RET - PTC1
Explanation: ***PAX8 - PPARγ*** - The **PAX8-PPARγ fusion oncogene** is a well-established molecular marker directly associated with **follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC)**. - This translocation leads to the expression of a fusion protein that contributes to **thyroid cell proliferation** and **tumorigenesis**. *ALK - NPM1* - The **ALK-NPM1 fusion** is primarily observed in some types of **anaplastic large cell lymphoma**, not thyroid cancers. - This translocation typically results in an **activated anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK)**, driving lymphoproliferation. *ETV6 - NTRK3* - The **ETV6-NTRK3 rearrangement** is characteristic of **secretory carcinoma** (formerly mammary analogue secretory carcinoma), often affecting salivary glands, and is not a common finding in thyroid malignancies. - This fusion leads to the activation of the **NTRK3 receptor tyrosine kinase**, involved in cell growth and survival. *RET - PTC1* - The **RET-PTC1 rearrangement (RET/papillary thyroid carcinoma 1)** is specifically associated with **papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC)**, which is histologically distinct from follicular thyroid carcinoma. - This fusion activates the **RET proto-oncogene**, promoting cell proliferation and survival in papillary thyroid cancer.
Question 24: All of the following are features of granulomatous thyroiditis except?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Giant cells on histology
- C. Painless (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypothyroidism
Explanation: ***Painless*** - Granulomatous thyroiditis is characterized by **painful** thyroid gland inflammation, which is a distinguishing feature. - Thus, describing it as **painless** contradicts the typical clinical presentation. *Hyperthyroidism* - Granulomatous thyroiditis may lead to **hyperthyroidism** initially due to the release of thyroid hormones from damaged follicles [1]. - However, this condition can also lead to transient thyroid function changes or even permanent hypothyroidism later on [1]. *Hypothyroidism* - While **hypothyroidism** can occur post-thyroiditis, it is not a feature of granulomatous thyroiditis at the outset like the **painless** descriptor. - This condition often starts with hyperthyroid symptoms and may evolve later, differing from primary hypothyroid disorders. *Giant cells on histology* - Histological examination typically reveals **multinucleated giant cells**, a hallmark of granulomatous inflammation, as seen in this thyroid condition. - This significant finding helps in differentiating it from other thyroid disorders. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1091-1092.
Question 25: Sezary cells show which type of nucleus?
- A. Cerebriform (Correct Answer)
- B. Pleomorphic
- C. Round
- D. Eosinophilic
Explanation: ***Cerebriform*** - **Sezary cells** are characterized by their distinctive **cerebriform nuclei**, giving them an irregular, convoluted appearance [1,2]. - This finding is a hallmark of **cutaneous T-cell lymphoma** and emphasizes their potential malignancy [1,2]. *Round* - Round nuclei do not reflect the typical morphology of **Sezary cells**, which are noted for their **irregular shape**. - Other lymphocytes may exhibit round nuclei, but this does not specifically indicate a **Sezary cell** presence. *Pleomorphic* - While some malignant cells might show **pleomorphic nuclei**, Sezary cells uniquely showcase **cerebriform nuclei** rather than varying shapes [1,2]. - Pleomorphic is not a defining characteristic of **Sezary cells**, making this description inaccurate. *Eosinophillic* - Eosinophilic refers to cells that stain positively for **eosin**, typically associated with **eosinophils**, which is not relevant to **Sezary cells**. - Sezary cells are more about their **nuclear morphology** and less about eosinophilic staining characteristics. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 564-565. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 613-614.
Question 26: What does Prussian blue staining specifically detect in histology?
- A. Ferric iron (Correct Answer)
- B. Ferrous iron
- C. Glycogen
- D. Lipids
Explanation: ***Ferric iron*** - The **Prussian blue reaction**, also known as Perls' stain, specifically identifies **ferric iron (Fe3+)** in tissue sections. - This stain is crucial for diagnosing conditions involving **iron overload**, such as hemochromatosis or hemosiderosis, by highlighting iron deposits as blue. *Ferrous iron* - The Prussian blue stain does **not react with ferrous iron (Fe2+)**; it specifically targets the ferric (oxidized) state of iron. - While ferrous iron is present in the body, it is not detected by this particular staining method for routine histological assessment of iron stores. *Glycogen* - **Glycogen** is a polysaccharide storage molecule and is typically stained using the **Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) stain**, which produces a magenta color. - Prussian blue staining is entirely unrelated to the detection of glycogen and would not highlight these molecules in tissue. *Lipids* - **Lipids** are fats and are typically stained with lipid-soluble dyes like **Oil Red O** or **Sudan Black**, especially in frozen sections to preserve their structure. - Prussian blue stain has no affinity for lipids and therefore cannot be used to detect them in histological samples.
Question 27: Homer-Wright rosette is seen in -
- A. Nephroblastoma
- B. Hepatoma
- C. Ependymoma
- D. Neuroblastoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Neuroblastoma*** - **Homer rosettes** are characteristic histopathological findings associated with neuroblastoma, indicating differentiation [1]. - This type of cancer typically occurs in **children**, primarily arising from the **adrenal glands** or sympathetic nervous system [1]. *Hepatoma* - Primarily affects the **liver** and is characterized by the presence of **hepatocytes** rather than Homer rosettes. - Typically associated with underlying **chronic liver disease** such as cirrhosis or hepatitis B/C. *Ependymoma* - Consists of cells arising from **ependymal cells** lining the ventricles of the brain and spinal cord, mainly involves **perivascular pseudorosettes**, not Homer rosettes. - Often presents with symptoms related to **increased intracranial pressure** due to obstruction. *Nephroblastoma* - Commonly known as **Wilms tumor**, it typically presents with a **palpable abdominal mass** in children and does not feature Homer rosettes. - Characterized by a triphasic histological pattern (blastemal, epithelial, and stromal components) rather than neuroblastic differentiation. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 483-485.
Question 28: What does Ghon's focus indicate in the context of tuberculosis?
- A. Primary complex (Correct Answer)
- B. Post primary tuberculosis
- C. Miliary tuberculosis
- D. Tuberculous lymphadenitis
Explanation: ***Primary complex*** - A **Ghon's focus** is the initial parenchymal lesion (typically subpleural) that develops during primary tuberculosis infection [1]. - The Ghon's focus, together with an enlarged regional lymph node (usually hilar or mediastinal), forms the **Ghon's complex** or **Primary complex** [2]. - When this complex undergoes calcification and healing, it is called a **Ranke complex**, which indicates past healed primary TB. *Post primary tuberculosis* - Also known as **reactivation tuberculosis** or **secondary tuberculosis**, this typically occurs years after the primary infection, usually in the apices of the lungs [2]. - It represents reactivation of dormant bacilli, not the initial primary infection lesion. - Characterized by cavitary lesions and often more severe pulmonary symptoms. *Miliary tuberculosis* - This is a form of progressive, widespread tuberculosis characterized by the presence of **tiny, millet-seed sized lesions** disseminated throughout the body via hematogenous spread [3]. - It indicates a severe and life-threatening form of TB resulting from massive lymphohematogenous dissemination. - Not related to the localized primary complex. *Tuberculous lymphadenitis* - This refers to **tuberculous infection of lymph nodes**, most commonly in the cervical region (scrofula). - While lymph node involvement is part of the primary complex, Ghon's focus specifically refers to the **parenchymal lung lesion**, not the lymph node component alone [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 379-380. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 319-320. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 320-321.
Question 29: Fibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis is mediated by -
- A. Platelet-Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)
- B. Transforming Growth Factor-beta (TGF-β) (Correct Answer)
- C. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
- D. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)
Explanation: ***PDGF*** - Platelet-Derived Growth Factor (**PDGF**) is a critical mediator in the **fibrogenic response** associated with liver cirrhosis [1]. - It stimulates the **proliferation** and activation of hepatic stellate cells, leading to excessive **collagen deposition** and fibrosis [1][2]. *ICAM-1* - Intercellular Adhesion Molecule-1 (**ICAM-1**) primarily mediates **cell adhesion** and is involved in inflammatory processes, not directly in fibrosis. - While it may play a role in **leukocyte recruitment**, it does not contribute significantly to the fibrogenic pathway in liver cirrhosis. *PcAM-l* - **PCAM-1** (Platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1) is involved in **cell adhesion** and is primarily expressed on endothelial cells. - Its role is more associated with **angiogenesis** and inflammation, lacking direct involvement in the fibrogenic process of cirrhosis. *IFN-y* - Interferon-gamma (**IFN-y**) is a cytokine that predominantly has a role in **immune modulation** and does not directly induce fibroblast activation. - It may have regulatory effects on inflammation but does not lead to significant fibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. With Illustrations By, pp. 31-32. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 830-832.
Question 30: Which of the following markers is specific for gastro-intestinal stromal tumor (GIST)?
- A. CD117 (Correct Answer)
- B. CD34
- C. CD23
- D. S-100
Explanation: ***CD 117*** - CD 117 (c-KIT) is the **primary marker** for gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), indicating the presence of the **c-KIT gene mutation** [1]. - Its expression is crucial for diagnosing GISTs, as it is found in nearly all cases of these tumors. *CD 34* - While CD 34 is expressed in some GISTs, it is a **more general marker** associated with stem cells and not specific for GISTs. - GISTs can be negative for CD 34, making it unsuitable for definitive diagnosis. *S-100* - S-100 is typically a marker for **melanocytes** and neuroectodermal tumors, not for GISTs. - It is often used to identify **schwannomas** or **melanomas**, which are unrelated to GIST pathology. *CD 23* - CD 23 is primarily a marker for **chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)** and some forms of lymphoma, not associated with GISTs. - Its presence indicates **lymphoid** lineage, further diverging from GISTs, which are **mesenchymal tumors**. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 782-783.