NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?

Prostate gland. ***Prostate gland*** - The **prostate gland** is the most characteristic male-specific accessory reproductive organ that is **definitively present in XY and absent in XX individuals**. - It develops from the **urogenital sinus** under the influence of **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** during embryonic development. - The prostate is a **substantial glandular structure** that surrounds the urethra and produces approximately 30% of seminal fluid. - It has **no homologous structure in females**—there is no female equivalent organ. *Incorrect: Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)* - **Cowper's glands (bulbourethral glands)** are indeed male-specific structures present only in XY individuals. - However, they are **homologous to Bartholin's glands** in females—meaning both develop from similar embryonic tissue (urogenital sinus). - While the question technically could accept this answer, the **prostate gland is the more definitive answer** as it is larger, more clinically significant, and has no female homologue. - Cowper's glands are small pea-sized glands that contribute to pre-ejaculate fluid. *Incorrect: Ovaries* - **Ovaries** are the primary female gonads present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals [1]. - They produce ova and female sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone) [1]. - In XY individuals, the **testes** develop instead under the influence of the SRY gene. *Incorrect: Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)* - **Bartholin's glands** are female-specific structures present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals. - Located at the posterior vaginal opening, they secrete mucus for vaginal lubrication. - They are homologous to Cowper's glands in males but are distinct structures.

Q: Which part of the bone is considered the most vascular zone?

Metaphysis. ***Metaphysis*** - The metaphysis is the most **vascular** part of the bone, containing numerous blood vessels that supply the growing bone. - This high vascularity makes it a common site for **osteomyelitis** and bone tumors due to the abundant blood supply [1]. *Diaphysis* - The diaphysis is the **shaft** or central part of a long bone, primarily composed of **compact bone** [2]. - While it has blood supply through nutrient arteries, its vascularity is less dense compared to the metaphysis. *Epiphysis* - The epiphysis is the **end portion** of a long bone, typically covered by articular cartilage. - It receives its blood supply from periarticular vessels, but is less vascular than the metaphysis, especially in mature bone. *Medullary Cavity* - The medullary cavity is the central cavity of bone shafts where **bone marrow** is stored [2]. - While it contains hematopoietic stem cells and a rich blood supply, the surrounding bone tissue of the metaphysis itself is considered more vascular in terms of nutrient delivery and growth.

Q: Medial snapping knee syndrome is due to involvement of -

Pes Anserinus. ***Pes Anserinus*** - The **pes anserinus bursa** and its associated tendons (sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus) can cause medial knee pain and snapping if inflamed or irritated. - This is a common cause of **medial snapping knee syndrome**, particularly in athletes or individuals with valgus deformity. *Quadriceps Tendon* - The **quadriceps tendon** is located anteriorly, connecting the quadriceps muscles to the patella, and is not typically involved in medial snapping. - Issues with the quadriceps tendon usually present as anterior knee pain or tendinitis. *Gastrocnemius origin* - The **gastrocnemius origin** is at the distal femur and its involvement would typically cause posterior knee pain or symptoms related to calf muscle function. - It does not commonly cause medial knee snapping. *Lateral collateral ligament* - The **lateral collateral ligament (LCL)** is on the lateral side of the knee and its involvement would cause lateral knee pain or instability. - It is not associated with medial snapping knee syndrome.

Q: Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -

Jersey Finger. ***Jersey Finger*** - **Jersey finger** is a common name for an avulsion injury of the **flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon** from its insertion on the distal phalanx. - This injury typically occurs when the finger is forcibly extended while the FDP tendon is contracting, often seen in sports where a player grabs an opponent's jersey. *Extensor tendon injury* - An **extensor tendon injury** involves the tendons on the dorsal side of the hand, responsible for extending the fingers. - This is distinct from a **flexor tendon injury**, which involves tendons on the palmar side. *Ulnar collateral ligament injury* - An **ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury** most commonly affects the thumb's metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint, often called **"skier's thumb"**. - This injury involves damage to the ligament supporting the joint, not an avulsion of a flexor tendon. *Central slip injury* - A **central slip injury** affects the middle slip of the extensor digitorum communis tendon over the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. - Untreated, it can lead to a **Boutonnière deformity**, which is characterized by PIP joint flexion and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint hyperextension.

Q: The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -

Intertrochanteric fractures. ***Intertrochanteric fractures*** - The K nail (specifically, the Kuntscher nail) is a **straight intramedullary nail** primarily designed for diaphyseal fractures. - It is **not suitable for intertrochanteric fractures** as these are metaphyseal and involve the proximal femur, requiring implants that offer greater stability in this region, such as cephalomedullary nails or plates. *Isthmic femur shaft fractures* - The **Kuntscher nail** was originally developed for and is well-suited for **isthmic femur shaft fractures** due to the narrow canal providing good cortical fixation. - Its design as a straight, broad nail fits snugly in the isthmus, providing excellent stability. *Low subtrochanteric fractures* - While more challenging, **K nails can be used for low subtrochanteric fractures**, especially if the fracture extends into the diaphyseal region. - However, newer implants like **cephalomedullary nails** are often preferred due to better biomechanical stability in this region. *Distal femur shaft fractures* - **K nails can be employed for distal femoral shaft fractures** if the fracture pattern allows for adequate fixation distal to the isthmus without compromising knee joint function. - The nail must be long enough to achieve stability, and the lack of proper locking mechanisms in traditional K nails may be a limiting factor compared to locked intramedullary nails.

Q: Thomas test is used for testing?

Hip flexor tightness. ***Hip flexor tightness*** - The **Thomas test** is a diagnostic maneuver used specifically to assess for the presence of **flexion contractures** within the hip joint. - It helps identify tightness in muscles such as the **iliopsoas**, rectus femoris, and tensor fasciae latae. *Knee flexion* - While hip flexor tightness can indirectly affect knee position, the Thomas test does not primarily measure the range of motion of **knee flexion** itself. - **Other tests**, such as goniometric measurements of the knee joint, are used to assess knee flexion directly. *Hip abduction* - The Thomas test is not designed to evaluate **hip abduction** range of motion. - Hip abduction is tested through maneuvers that move the leg away from the midline of the body, often with the patient in a side-lying or supine position, assessing muscles like the **gluteus medius** and minimus. *Hip rotation* - The Thomas test does not assess **hip rotation** (internal or external). - Hip rotation is typically evaluated with the hip and knee flexed to 90 degrees, assessing the rotational range of the **femoral head within the acetabulum**.

Q: A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?

Thomas test. ***Thomas test*** - The **Thomas test** is specifically designed to detect a **fixed flexion deformity of the hip**, where the hip cannot fully extend. - During the test, the patient's hip is flexed to flatten the lumbar spine, and if the contralateral leg then rises off the table, it indicates a fixed flexion deformity. *Trendelenburg's test* - The **Trendelenburg's test** assesses the strength and function of the **hip abductor muscles**, primarily the gluteus medius. - A positive result indicates weakness of the abductors on the standing leg, causing the pelvis to drop on the unsupported side, which is unrelated to fixed flexion deformity. *Nelaton's test* - **Nelaton's test** is used to determine the relative position of the **greater trochanter** in relation to the **ischial tuberosity** and **anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)**, primarily in cases of hip dislocation or fracture. - It would not specifically identify a fixed flexion deformity of the hip joint itself. *Telescoping test* - The **telescoping test** is used to evaluate for hip instability, particularly in infants with **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**. - It involves applying axial pressure to the femur while moving the hip, assessing for abnormal movement of the femoral head within the acetabulum, and does not directly detect fixed flexion deformity.

Q: The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?

Metacarpophalangeal joint. ***Metacarpophalangeal joint*** - The **A1 pulley** is located at the base of the finger, overlying the **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint**. - Its pathological thickening or narrowing can impede the smooth gliding of **flexor tendons**, causing **trigger finger**. *Proximal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A2** and **A3 pulleys** are located at the level of the **proximal phalanx** and **proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint**, respectively. - While essential for tendon function, they are not primarily involved in typical **trigger finger**. *Distal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A4** and **A5 pulleys** are located at the level of the **middle phalanx** and **distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint**, respectively. - Pathologies at these pulleys are less common in trigger finger and typically affect the **distal tendon glide**. *Carpometacarpal joint* - The **carpometacarpal (CMC) joints** are located at the base of the hand, between the carpal bones and metacarpals. - There are no A pulleys associated with the CMC joints, and they are not directly involved in the mechanism of **trigger finger**.

Q: Aeroplane splint is used in ?

Brachial plexus injury. ***Brachial plexus injury*** - The **aeroplane splint** is specifically designed to support the arm in **abduction** and **external rotation** at the shoulder, with the elbow flexed. - This position helps to relieve tension on the injured **brachial plexus** nerves and prevents contractures, particularly after an **upper brachial plexus injury** (e.g., Erb's palsy). *Radial nerve injury* - Radial nerve injuries typically present with **wrist drop** and difficulty with finger extension. - Splints for radial nerve injury, such as a **dynamic wrist extension splint**, focus on supporting wrist and finger extension, not shoulder abduction. *Ulnar nerve injury* - Ulnar nerve injuries lead to a **claw hand deformity** and sensory loss in the pinky and half of the ring finger. - Splints for ulnar nerve injury aim to prevent hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and support the interphalangeal joints, often involving static or dynamic splints for the hand. *Scoliosis* - Scoliosis is a **lateral curvature of the spine**, usually treated with bracing (e.g., Boston brace or Milwaukee brace) or surgery. - An aeroplane splint has no role in the management or treatment of scoliosis.

Q: Osteoclasts have all of the following functions except -

Receptor for parathormone. ***Receptor for parathormone*** - **Osteoclasts** do not directly have receptors for **parathormone (PTH)**; instead, **osteoblasts** have PTH receptors. - When PTH binds to osteoblasts, they release factors (like **RANKL**) that stimulate osteoclast activity, thus indirectly regulating bone resorption. *Bone resorption* - **Osteoclasts** are specialized cells primarily responsible for **resorbing bone matrix**, a critical process in bone remodeling. - They secrete **acids and enzymes** to break down the mineral and organic components of bone. *Ruffled border* - The **ruffled border** is a characteristic morphological feature of active osteoclasts, representing a highly folded plasma membrane. - This specialized structure increases the surface area for the secretion of **protons and lysosomal enzymes** into the bone-resorbing compartment. *RANK ligand production* - **Osteoclasts** do not produce **RANK ligand (RANKL)**; rather, they have **RANK receptors** that bind to RANKL produced by **osteoblasts and stromal cells**. - The binding of RANKL to RANK is essential for the **differentiation, activation, and survival** of osteoclasts.

Question 1

Which of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?

Accepted Answer

Prostate gland

Answer

Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)

Answer

Ovaries

Answer

Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)

Question 2

Which part of the bone is considered the most vascular zone?

Accepted Answer

Metaphysis

Answer

Diaphysis

Answer

Epiphysis

Answer

Medullary Cavity

Question 3

Medial snapping knee syndrome is due to involvement of -

Accepted Answer

Pes Anserinus

Answer

Gastrocnemius origin

Answer

Lateral collateral ligament

Answer

Quadriceps Tendon

Question 4

Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -

Accepted Answer

Jersey Finger

Answer

Extensor tendon injury

Answer

Ulnar collateral ligament injury

Answer

Central slip injury

Question 5

The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -

Accepted Answer

Intertrochanteric fractures

Answer

Isthmic femur shaft fractures

Answer

Low subtrochanteric fractures

Answer

Distal femur shaft fractures

Question 6

Thomas test is used for testing?

Accepted Answer

Hip flexor tightness

Answer

Knee flexion

Answer

Hip abduction

Answer

Hip rotation

Question 7

A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?

Accepted Answer

Thomas test

Answer

Trendelenburgs test

Answer

Telescoping test

Answer

Nelaton's test

Question 8

The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?

Accepted Answer

Metacarpophalangeal joint

Answer

Proximal Interphalngeal joint

Answer

Carpometacarpal joint

Answer

Distal Interphalangeal joint

Question 9

Aeroplane splint is used in ?

Accepted Answer

Brachial plexus injury

Answer

Ulnar nerve injury

Answer

Radial nerve injury

Answer

Scoliosis

Question 10

Osteoclasts have all of the following functions except -

Accepted Answer

Receptor for parathormone

Answer

Ruffled border

Answer

Bone resorption

Answer

RANK ligand production

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Orthopaedics

Physiology