NEET-PG 2015

1414 Questions — Page 97 of 142

Internal Medicine

5 questions

Q961

In cobalamin deficiency which is not seen

Q962

Which of the following is the most common type of multiple sclerosis?

Q963

What does a motor score of 4 on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicate?

Q964

Increased ICP is shown by

Q965

Most common site of hypertensive intraparenchymal hemorrhage in the brain?

NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 961: In cobalamin deficiency which is not seen

A. Loss of proprioception
B. Rhomberg sign
C. Microcytic anemia (Correct Answer)
D. Long tract signs

Explanation: Microcytic anemia - Cobalamin deficiency typically leads to macrocytic anemia due to impaired DNA synthesis, not microcytic anemia [1]. - Microcytic anemia is usually associated with iron deficiency, thalassemia, or anemia of chronic disease [1]. Long tract signs - Long tract signs are common in cobalamin deficiency due to posterior column and corticospinal tract involvement leading to symptoms like spasticity. - They indicate involvement of pathways that are affected by vitamin B12 deficiency. Loss of proprioception - Loss of proprioception can occur in cobalamin deficiency due to damage to the dorsal columns of the spinal cord. - It is a common clinical finding indicating the involvement of sensory pathways. Rhomberg sign - A positive Rhomberg sign indicates impaired proprioception, which can happen in cobalamin deficiency. - It reflects difficulty maintaining balance, emphasizing sensory dysfunction associated with the deficiency.

Question 962: Which of the following is the most common type of multiple sclerosis?

A. Relapsing remitting type (Correct Answer)
B. Progressive relapsing multiple sclerosis
C. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis
D. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis

Explanation: ***Relapsing remitting type*** - **Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS)** is characterized by clearly defined attacks of worsening neurological function (relapses) followed by periods of partial or complete recovery (remissions). - Approximately **85%** of people with MS are initially diagnosed with RRMS, making it the most common form [1]. *Progressive relapsing multiple sclerosis* - This is a rare form of MS characterized by a **steady neurological decline** from the onset, with superimposed acute relapses. - Unlike RRMS, there are **no periods of remission** in PRMS. *Primary progressive multiple sclerosis* - **Primary progressive multiple sclerosis (PPMS)** is characterized by slowly worsening neurological function from the onset, without early relapses or remissions [1]. - It accounts for roughly **15%** of all MS cases, making it less common than RRMS [1]. *Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis* - **Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (SPMS)** typically develops in individuals who initially had RRMS, where the disease begins to progress steadily, with or without occasional relapses. - It is a **later stage** of MS and not the most common initial presentation.

Question 963: What does a motor score of 4 on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicate?

A. Decorticate posturing
B. Withdrawal or flexion to pain (Correct Answer)
C. Decerebrate posturing
D. Localizes to pain

Explanation: A motor score of 4 on the **Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)** signifies that the patient **withdraws or flexes their limb** away from a painful stimulus. - This response indicates a degree of purposeful movement but is not considered localization to the pain. *Decerebrate posturing* - This represents a GCS motor score of **2**, characterized by **extension and internal rotation of the arms** and extension of the legs in response to pain [1]. - It suggests severe damage to the **brainstem**, specifically below the red nucleus [1]. *Decorticate posturing* - This corresponds to a GCS motor score of **3**, where the patient exhibits **flexion and adduction of the arms** with extension of the legs to painful stimuli [1]. - It often indicates damage to the **corticospinal tracts** above the red nucleus [1]. *Localizes to pain* - This is a GCS motor score of **5**, where the patient **moves their hand beyond the chin** attempting to remove the painful stimulus. - It indicates a higher level of conscious response and purposeful movement compared to withdrawal.

Question 964: Increased ICP is shown by

A. Reduction in GCS (Correct Answer)
B. Pupil constriction (Miosis)
C. Systemic hypotension
D. Tachycardia

Explanation: ***Reduction in GCS*** - A **decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)** score is a primary indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to compromised brain function [1], [2]. - Increased ICP can lead to **cerebral ischemia** and neuronal damage, manifesting as altered consciousness and lower GCS scores [1]. *Pupil constriction (Miosis)* - **Miosis**, or pupil constriction, is typically associated with **pontine lesions** or **opioid use**, and rarely directly with increased ICP unless it specifically involves brainstem compression at the pontine level. - Increased ICP more commonly causes **pupil dilation (mydriasis)**, especially unilateral, due to compression of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) [1]. *Systemic hypotension* - **Systemic hypotension** is generally *not* a direct sign of increased ICP; rather, increased ICP often results in **systemic hypertension** as part of Cushing's triad. - Hypotension in the context of brain injury might indicate **spinal shock** or other systemic issues, but generally not directly elevated ICP. *Tachycardia* - **Tachycardia** is also *not* typically associated with increased ICP; instead, **bradycardia** (slow heart rate) is a hallmark sign, forming part of Cushing's triad. - Tachycardia might suggest **hypovolemia**, **pain**, or other systemic stressors, but not directly increased ICP.

Question 965: Most common site of hypertensive intraparenchymal hemorrhage in the brain?

A. Putamen (Correct Answer)
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebellum
D. Pons

Explanation: ***Putamen*** - The **putamen** is the most frequent site for **hypertensive intraparenchymal hemorrhages** [1] due to the presence of numerous small, thin-walled arterioles (lenticulostriate arteries) that are highly susceptible to damage from chronic hypertension [1]. - Hemorrhages in this region often cause **contralateral hemiparesis**, **hemianesthesia**, and **gaze deviation** towards the side of the lesion due to involvement of nearby motor and sensory pathways [1]. *Thalamus* - While the **thalamus** is a common site for hypertensive hemorrhages, it is less common than the putamen [1], [2]. - Thalamic hemorrhages typically cause **contralateral sensory loss**, **oculomotor dysfunction**, and sometimes **aphasia** if the dominant hemisphere is affected. *Cerebellum* - **Cerebellar hemorrhages** are less frequent than those in the basal ganglia or thalamus [1]. - Symptoms usually include **ataxia**, **nystagmus**, vomiting, and potential brainstem compression if large. *Pons* - **Pontine hemorrhages** are among the most severe and are often rapidly fatal due to damage to vital brainstem structures [1], [2]. - They typically present with **coma**, **quadriparesis**, **pinpoint pupils**, and rapid progression to respiratory arrest.

Pathology

1 questions

Q961

Which is the most common type of male breast cancer?

Surgery

4 questions

Q961

Which of the following is resected in Whipple's operation, except?

Q962

CA Breast may locally spread to all of the following muscles except

Q963

A 45-year-old female underwent a modified radical mastectomy with axillary clearance for breast cancer. Post-surgery, she is unable to lift her arm above her head. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?

Q964

A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is

NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 961: Which of the following is resected in Whipple's operation, except?

A. Duodenum
B. Head of pancreas
C. Neck of pancreas (Correct Answer)
D. Common bile duct

Explanation: ***Neck of pancreas*** - In a **Whipple procedure** (pancreaticoduodenectomy), the **neck of the pancreas** is the site of transection (division), not resection. - The **head of the pancreas** (distal to the neck) is removed, while the **body and tail** (proximal to the neck) are preserved. - The transected surface at the neck is anastomosed to the jejunum to maintain pancreatic drainage. *Duodenum* - The **entire duodenum** is resected during a Whipple operation. - This is necessary because the **head of the pancreas** is intimately involved with the duodenum, sharing blood supply and lymphatic drainage. *Head of pancreas* - The **head of the pancreas** is the primary target for resection in a Whipple procedure. - This is typically performed for **malignancies** (pancreatic or periampullary tumors) or severe inflammatory conditions affecting this region. *Common bile duct* - The **distal common bile duct** is resected as part of the specimen to ensure complete tumor excision with adequate margins. - The remaining **proximal common bile duct** is then anastomosed to the jejunum (hepaticojejunostomy).

Question 962: CA Breast may locally spread to all of the following muscles except

A. Latissimus Dorsi (Correct Answer)
B. Pectoralis Minor
C. Serratus Anterior
D. Pectoralis Major

Explanation: ***Latissimus Dorsi*** - The **latissimus dorsi** muscle is located on the posterior aspect of the trunk and arm, significantly deeper and further away from the breast tissue compared to other surrounding muscles. - Direct local invasion of breast cancer to the latissimus dorsi is rare and typically requires extensive tumor growth or metastasis to more distant sites before affecting this muscle. *Pectoralis Minor* - The **pectoralis minor** muscle lies directly beneath the pectoralis major and is in close proximity to the deeper aspects of the breast tissue. - Tumors that invade the **deep fascia** of the breast can directly extend into this muscle. *Serratus Anterior* - The **serratus anterior** muscle is located on the lateral wall of the thorax, forming part of the chest wall beneath the breast. - **Aggressive breast cancers**, particularly those in the outer quadrants, can invade the fascial planes covering this muscle. *Pectoralis Major* - The **pectoralis major** forms the anterior wall of the axilla and lies directly beneath the majority of the breast tissue. - It is one of the most common muscles to be affected by **direct local invasion** from breast cancer due to its anatomical proximity.

Question 963: A 45-year-old female underwent a modified radical mastectomy with axillary clearance for breast cancer. Post-surgery, she is unable to lift her arm above her head. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?

A. Intercostobrachial nerve
B. Nerve to latissimus Dorsi
C. Lateral Pectoral nerve
D. Long thoracic nerve of Bell (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Long thoracic nerve of Bell*** - Injury to the **long thoracic nerve** (nerve to the serratus anterior) leads to **paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle**. - This muscle is crucial for **upward rotation and protraction of the scapula**, which is essential for arm elevation above the head and preventing **'winging' of the scapula**. *Intercostobrachial nerve* - Injury to the **intercostobrachial nerve** typically causes **sensory loss** or numbness in the medial upper arm. - It does not primarily affect motor function or the ability to lift the arm. *Nerve to latissimus Dorsi* - The **thoracodorsal nerve** innervates the **latissimus dorsi muscle**, which is involved in adduction, extension, and internal rotation of the arm. - Injury to this nerve would impair these movements but not directly prevent arm elevation above the head. *Lateral Pectoral nerve* - The **lateral pectoral nerve** supplies the **pectoralis major muscle**, primarily its clavicular head. - Injury would weaken adduction and flexion of the arm, but the inability to lift the arm above the head strongly points to serratus anterior dysfunction.

Question 964: A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is

A. Fibroadenoma (Correct Answer)
B. Cystasarcoma Phylloides
C. Scirrhous Carcinoma
D. Fibroadenosis

Explanation: ***Fibroadenoma*** - This is the most common benign breast tumor in young women, typically presenting as a **mobile, non-tender, firm mass** with no attachment to surrounding tissues. - The history of a **non-progressive mass** over six months in a 22-year-old woman is highly characteristic of a fibroadenoma. *Cystasarcoma Phylloides* - While it can present as a mobile mass, phyllodes tumors tend to grow **rapidly** and can reach a large size, which contradicts the "non-progressive" nature of the mass described. - Phyllodes tumors often have a **leaf-like architectural pattern** histologically and can be benign, borderline, or malignant. *Scirrhous Carcinoma* - This is a type of invasive ductal carcinoma that typically presents as a **hard, irregular, fixed mass** that is often attached to the skin or underlying tissue, unlike the mobile mass described here. - It is common in older women and often associated with **skin dimpling** or nipple retraction. *Fibroadenosis* - This refers to a group of benign breast changes, often presenting with generalized **lumpiness, pain, or tenderness** that fluctuates with the menstrual cycle, rather than a discrete, solitary mass. - It usually presents as **multiple, diffuse nodules** rather than a single, well-defined mass.