NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of ethmoidal polyp?

Commonly found as a single polyp. ***Commonly found as a single polyp*** - **Ethmoidal polyps** are typically **multiple** and bilateral, originating from the ethmoid sinuses. - They rarely present as a single, isolated polyp, which is more characteristic of antrochoanal polyps. - This is the key distinguishing feature that makes this statement INCORRECT. *Common in adults* - **Ethmoidal polyps** are indeed **more prevalent in adults** than in children. - Peak incidence occurs between 30-50 years of age. - Their incidence tends to increase with age, often associated with chronic rhinosinusitis. *Commonly bilateral* - **Ethmoidal polyps** almost invariably present as **bilateral polyps**, involving both sides of the nasal cavity. - This bilateral nature is a key differentiating feature from antrochoanal polyps, which are typically unilateral. - Bilateral presentation is one of the hallmark characteristics of ethmoidal polyps. *Associated with chronic rhinosinusitis* - **Ethmoidal polyps** are strongly associated with **chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis (CRSwNP)**. - They arise from chronic mucosal inflammation of the ethmoid sinuses. - Often associated with conditions like aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD/Samter's triad) and non-allergic eosinophilic inflammation.

Q: Murmur heard in aortic stenosis

Right 2nd intercostal, high pitch systolic ejection murmur. ***Right 2nd intercostal, high pitch systolic ejection murmur*** - The murmur of **aortic stenosis** is classically heard loudest at the **right second intercostal space** (aortic area) due to turbulent flow through the stenosed aortic valve. - It is a **high-pitched, systolic ejection murmur** with a crescendo-decrescendo pattern, often radiating to the carotid arteries [2]. *Apex, low pitch murmur associated with mitral valve issues* - A murmur heard at the **apex** that is low-pitched typically suggests **mitral stenosis**, which is a diastolic rumble, not an aortic stenosis murmur [1]. - This option refers to characteristics associated with **mitral valve disease**, not aortic stenosis. *Pan-systolic murmur, high pitch murmur associated with mitral regurgitation* - A **pan-systolic murmur** is characteristic of conditions like **mitral regurgitation** or tricuspid regurgitation, where blood flows throughout the entire systole [3]. - While it can be high-pitched, its pan-systolic nature and association with mitral regurgitation make it distinct from aortic stenosis. *Left Sternal area, murmur indicating mitral regurgitation* - Murmurs heard primarily at the **left sternal area** can indicate various conditions, but this option specifically points to **mitral regurgitation**. - **Mitral regurgitation** is better heard at the apex and usually radiates to the axilla, and the description does not fit the typical presentation of aortic stenosis [3].

Q: What is the most common form of leptospirosis?

Anicteric form. ***Anicteric form*** - The **anicteric form** accounts for about 90% of all leptospirosis cases, presenting with milder, flu-like symptoms without jaundice. - Patients typically experience **fever, headache, myalgia**, and conjunctival suffusion during the initial septicemic phase [1], followed by an immune phase that can involve meningitis or uveitis [1]. *Icteric form* - The **icteric form** (Weil's disease) is a severe manifestation, characterized by jaundice, renal failure, and hemorrhage, occurring in a minority of cases (5-10%). - Although more severe and often life-threatening, it is **less common** than the anicteric presentation [1]. *Hepatorenal form* - This term describes the severe complications of leptospirosis, including **liver and kidney dysfunction**, specifically associated with Weil's disease. - While a critical aspect of severe leptospirosis, it is a description of the organ involvement rather than a distinct common form of the disease. *Weil's disease* - **Weil's disease** is the most severe and potentially fatal form of leptospirosis, characterized by **jaundice, renal failure, hemorrhage, and myocarditis**. - It is a severe subset of the icteric form, making it a very serious but **uncommon variant** of the overall disease.

Q: Haptens are immunogenic when they covalently bind to which type of carrier?

Protein carrier. ***Protein carrier*** - Haptens are small molecules that are **antigenic** but not **immunogenic** on their own; they acquire immunogenicity when covalently bound to a larger carrier molecule. - **Proteins** are highly effective carriers because their complex structures and multiple epitopes can induce strong T-cell help, which is crucial for a robust antibody response against the hapten. *Lipid carrier* - While some lipids can be antigenic (e.g., glycolipids), they generally do not serve as effective carriers for haptens to induce a strong adaptive immune response, especially T-cell-dependent responses. - **Lipids** are less likely to be processed and presented by MHC molecules in a way that generates potent helper T-cell activation. *Polysaccharide carrier* - Some polysaccharides can be immunogenic themselves (e.g., bacterial capsular polysaccharides) and can induce T-cell-independent antibody responses. - However, for haptens to become immunogenic and induce a **T-cell-dependent antibody response**, a protein carrier is typically required. *None of the above carrier* - This option is incorrect because haptens do require a carrier to become immunogenic, and specific types of carriers are more effective than others. - The type of carrier chosen significantly impacts the **strength and nature of the immune response** to the hapten.

Q: Which of the following is not a recognized transmission route for amoebiasis?

Vector transmission. ***Vector transmission*** - Amoebiasis, caused by *Entamoeba histolytica*, is primarily an **intestinal infection** transmitted through the **fecal-oral route**. - Its life cycle **does not involve any arthropod vector** (e.g., mosquito, tick, fly) for transmission. - This is the **only route among the options that is definitively NOT recognized** for amoebiasis transmission. *Sexual transmission* - Amoebiasis **can be transmitted** through **oral-anal sexual contact**, particularly documented in men who have sex with men (MSM). - This represents an **indirect fecal-oral transmission** route and is a recognized mode of spread. *Blood and blood products* - While *E. histolytica* can disseminate to cause **amoebic liver abscesses** and rarely systemic disease, transmission via blood transfusion is **extremely rare and not well-documented**. - However, theoretically possible in cases of parasitemia during invasive disease. - Unlike vector transmission, this cannot be definitively ruled out as "not recognized." *Fecal-oral route* - This is the **primary and most important transmission route** for amoebiasis. - Infection occurs through ingestion of **cysts** from contaminated food, water, or through direct person-to-person contact with poor hand hygiene.

Q: To which part of an antigen do monoclonal antibodies specifically bind?

Specific epitope on the antigen. ***Specific epitope on the antigen*** - Monoclonal antibodies are designed to recognize and bind to a **unique, specific region** on an antigen, known as an **epitope**. - This high specificity is crucial for their clinical applications, such as targeted therapies and diagnostic tests. *Both the epitope and the paratope* - The **epitope** is the part of the antigen, while the **paratope** is the part of the antibody that binds to the epitope. - An antibody binds to an epitope, not to both itself and its own binding site. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there is a correct answer among the choices provided, which accurately describes the binding site of monoclonal antibodies. *Part of the antibody that binds to the epitope* - This describes the **paratope**, which is the antigen-binding site on the antibody, not the part of the antigen to which the antibody binds. - The question specifically asks about the part of the antigen.

Q: What is the type of cataract associated with Galactosemia?

Oil drop. ***Oil drop*** - This characteristic appearance is caused by the accumulation of **galactitol** in the lens, leading to changes in refractive index. - The "oil drop" cataract is a classic sign of **galactosemia**, often appearing as an early manifestation of the disease. *Snowflake cataract* - This type of cataract is more commonly associated with **diabetes mellitus** rather than galactosemia. - It presents as **fluffy white opacities** that can lead to rapid vision loss. *Blue dot cataract* - This is typically a **congenital stationary cataract** with small, bluish opacities in the peripheral lens. - It is usually **benign** and non-progressive, and not specifically linked to metabolic disorders like galactosemia. *Polychromatic lustre cataract* - This describes the varied, iridescent colors seen in certain types of cataracts, often associated with **complicated cataracts** or those near the lens sutures. - It does not specifically refer to the unique "oil drop" appearance of galactosemic cataracts.

Q: Most common age related change in vitreous?

Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD). ***Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)*** - As we age, the **vitreous body** undergoes liquefaction and shrinkage, leading to its separation from the **retina**, most commonly posteriorly. - This is a very common and usually benign age-related phenomenon, often presenting with **floaters** and **flashes of light**. *Anterior vitreous detachment* - **Anterior vitreous detachment** is much less common than PVD and not typically considered the most frequent age-related change. - It often occurs secondary to **trauma** or specific surgical procedures rather than spontaneous aging alone. *Vitreous hemorrhage* - **Vitreous hemorrhage** is a pathological condition involving bleeding into the vitreous humor, often due to **diabetic retinopathy**, retinal tears, or trauma. - It is not a normal age-related change but a complication of underlying disease. *Vitritis* - **Vitritis** refers to inflammation of the vitreous humor, commonly associated with **uveitis** or infections. - It is an inflammatory disease process, not a physiological age-related degeneration of the vitreous.

Q: Which tumor is characterized by the presence of cells that resemble tennis rackets?

Langerhans cell histiocytosis. ***Langerhans cell histiocytosis*** - This condition is characterized by **Birbeck granules** within the Langerhans cells, which have a distinctive **tennis racket-like appearance** on electron microscopy. - The cells are also positive for **CD1a** and **S-100** immunohistochemical markers. *Sarcoma botyroides* - This is a subtype of **embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma** typically found in mucosal sites, presenting as a polypoid, grape-like mass. - Its histology shows small, undifferentiated cells with primitive skeletal muscle differentiation, but **not tennis racket-shaped cells**. *Vaginal adenocarcinoma* - This is a rare malignancy of the vagina, often associated with **diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure** in utero, presenting as glands. - The cells show glandular differentiation and produce mucin, but **lack Birbeck granules**. *Seminoma* - This is a germ cell tumor of the testis characterized by large, uniform cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli, divided into lobules by fibrous septa containing lymphocytes. - There are **no tennis racket-shaped cells** or Birbeck granules associated with seminoma.

Q: All are true about GFR except:

Best estimated by creatinine clearance. ***Best estimated by creatinine clearance*** - While **creatinine clearance** can be used as a measure of GFR, it is not the *best* estimate; it tends to slightly **overestimate** GFR due to tubular secretion of creatinine. [1] - The gold standard for measuring GFR involves methods like **inulin clearance**, but in clinical practice, GFR is often *estimated* using equations based on **serum creatinine** (e.g., CKD-EPI, MDRD). [2] *30-40% decrease after 70 years of age* - **Aging** is associated with a physiological decline in GFR, with a general decrease often cited as 30-40% after the age of 70 years. - This decline is part of the normal **age-related changes in renal function**. *GFR is dependent on height in children* - In children, GFR is often adjusted for **body surface area (BSA)**, which is calculated based on both **height and weight**, making height an important factor. [1] - This adjustment is crucial for accurate assessment of renal function in a growing pediatric population. *Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is defined as GFR < 60 ml/min/1.73 m² for 3 months or more.* - This statement accurately reflects the widely accepted definition of **Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)** according to clinical guidelines. [3] - A GFR below this threshold sustained for more than three months indicates persistent kidney damage or dysfunction.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a feature of ethmoidal polyp?

Accepted Answer

Commonly found as a single polyp

Answer

Common in adults

Answer

Commonly bilateral

Answer

Associated with chronic rhinosinusitis

Question 2

Murmur heard in aortic stenosis

Accepted Answer

Right 2nd intercostal, high pitch systolic ejection murmur

Answer

Apex, low pitch murmur associated with mitral valve issues

Answer

Pan-systolic murmur, high pitch murmur associated with mitral regurgitation

Answer

Left Sternal area, murmur indicating mitral regurgitation

Question 3

What is the most common form of leptospirosis?

Accepted Answer

Anicteric form

Answer

Icteric form

Answer

Hepatorenal form

Answer

Weil's disease

Question 4

Haptens are immunogenic when they covalently bind to which type of carrier?

Accepted Answer

Protein carrier

Answer

Lipid carrier

Answer

Polysaccharide carrier

Answer

None of the above carrier

Question 5

Which of the following is not a recognized transmission route for amoebiasis?

Accepted Answer

Vector transmission

Answer

Sexual transmission

Answer

Blood and blood products

Answer

Fecal-oral route

Question 6

To which part of an antigen do monoclonal antibodies specifically bind?

Accepted Answer

Specific epitope on the antigen

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Both the epitope and the paratope

Answer

Part of the antibody that binds to the epitope

Question 7

What is the type of cataract associated with Galactosemia?

Accepted Answer

Oil drop

Answer

Snowflake cataract

Answer

Blue dot cataract

Answer

Polychromatic lustre cataract

Question 8

Most common age related change in vitreous?

Accepted Answer

Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)

Answer

Anterior vitreous detachment

Answer

Vitreous hemorrhage

Answer

Vitritis

Question 9

Which tumor is characterized by the presence of cells that resemble tennis rackets?

Accepted Answer

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Answer

Seminoma

Answer

Vaginal adenocarcinoma

Answer

Sarcoma botyroides

Question 10

All are true about GFR except:

Accepted Answer

Best estimated by creatinine clearance

Answer

30-40% decrease after 70 years of age

Answer

GFR is dependent on height in children

Answer

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is defined as GFR < 60 ml/min/1.73 m² for 3 months or more.

NEET-PG 2015

ENT

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Physiology