Anatomy
2 questionsCeruminous glands present in the ear are:
When does the rudimentary cochlea develop in the fetus?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 781: Ceruminous glands present in the ear are:
- A. Modified eccrine glands
- B. Modified apocrine glands (Correct Answer)
- C. Mucous gland
- D. Modified holocrine glands
Explanation: ***Modified apocrine glands*** - **Ceruminous glands** in the ear canal are specialized **apocrine glands** responsible for producing cerumen (earwax). - Like other apocrine glands, they secrete their product via **apical budding** of the cell, releasing fragments of the cell along with the secretion [1]. *Modified eccrine glands* - **Eccrine sweat glands** are distributed throughout the skin and produce a watery sweat for thermoregulation [1]. - They secrete their product directly onto the skin surface via **exocytosis**, without loss of cellular material. *Mucous gland* - **Mucous glands** (e.g., salivary glands, respiratory tract glands) produce **mucus**, a viscous secretion primarily for lubrication and protection. - Their secretions are rich in **mucin glycoproteins**, which is distinct from the lipid-rich cerumen. *Modified holocrine glands* - **Holocrine glands** (e.g., sebaceous glands) release their entire cell contents, including lipids and cellular debris, upon cell lysis. - While sebaceous glands contribute to earwax, ceruminous glands themselves operate via an **apocrine mechanism**, not holocrine [1].
Question 782: When does the rudimentary cochlea develop in the fetus?
- A. First week
- B. 4th to 8th week (Correct Answer)
- C. 8th to 12th week
- D. 16 to 20th week
Explanation: 4th to 8th week - The **cochlea** begins its development from the **otic vesicle** around the **4th week** of gestation and undergoes extensive coiling. - By the **8th week**, the cochlea has achieved its characteristic snail-like shape, though further differentiation and maturation continue. *First week* - The first week of embryonic development involves **fertilization**, **cleavage**, and **implantation**, with no organogenesis occurring [1]. - At this stage, the embryo is a **blastocyst**, and specific organ structures like the cochlea have not yet begun to form [1]. *8th to 12th week* - While significant maturation of the inner ear structures occurs during this period, the **rudimentary cochlea** has already formed its basic shape by the 8th week. - This phase involves further differentiation of the **organ of Corti** and development of neural connections, rather than the initial formation of the cochlea itself. *16 to 20th week* - By the 16th to 20th week, the inner ear structures are largely developed and functional, including the **cochlea**, which is capable of responding to sound stimuli. - This period marks the onset of **fetal hearing** and continued fine-tuning of the auditory system, far beyond the rudimentary stage of cochlear development.
Community Medicine
4 questionsWhat distance from a water source defines a problem village according to the Government of India?
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?
What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?
Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 781: What distance from a water source defines a problem village according to the Government of India?
- A. > 0.5 km
- B. > 1 km
- C. > 1.6 km (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***> 1.6 km*** - According to the **Government of India's criteria**, a village is designated as a **problem village** if its residents have to travel more than **1.6 kilometers** to access a safe and assured source of drinking water. - This definition is crucial for identifying areas that require specific interventions and programs to improve water access. *> 0.5 km* - While a distance of 0.5 km might be considered inconvenient, it does not meet the **official threshold** set by the Government of India for categorizing a village as "problematic" regarding water access. - This distance is typically much shorter than the criteria used for policy and intervention planning. *> 1 km* - A distance of 1 km, like 0.5 km, falls short of the **established benchmark** of 1.6 km defined by the Government of India for identifying a problem village. - Although it represents a significant walk, it does not trigger the specific **policy responses** associated with problem village status. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **1.6 km** is indeed the specific distance recognized by the Government of India for defining a problem village in terms of water source accessibility. - The other options are incorrect as they do not match the official criteria.
Question 782: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?
- A. 50% reduction in mortality by 2017
- B. Objective is API < 1 per 10,000 (Correct Answer)
- C. Complete treatment to 100% of patients
- D. Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017
Explanation: ***Objective is API < 1 per 10,000*** - The correct objective for the **Annual Parasite Incidence (API)** in the 2012-2017 strategic plan for malaria control was to reduce it to **less than 1 per 1,000 population**, not 1 per 10,000, making this statement incorrect. - This metric measures the number of new malaria cases per 1,000 people per year. *50% reduction in mortality by 2017* - A key objective of the **National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India** (which this strategic plan aimed to contribute to) was indeed to achieve a significant reduction in malaria-related mortality. - Specifically, aiming for a **50% reduction in mortality** by 2017 was a stated goal to lessen the disease burden. *Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017* - One of the primary goals of the **Malaria Control Strategic Plan 2012-2017** was to reduce the annual parasite incidence (API) to **less than 1 per 1,000 population** in all endemic areas. - This target focused on decreasing the occurrence of new malaria cases. *Complete treatment to 100% of patients* - A core component of malaria control strategies emphasizes ensuring that **all confirmed malaria cases** receive complete and effective treatment. - Achieving **100% complete treatment adherence** is crucial to prevent drug resistance and eliminate the parasite reservoir.
Question 783: What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?
- A. Inpatient
- B. Outpatient
- C. Urgent care patient
- D. Observation status (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Observation status*** - Patients under **observation status** are monitored in a hospital setting for a short period (typically less than 24-48 hours) to determine if inpatient admission is necessary. - This status is used when the medical condition is uncertain, requiring further evaluation and diagnostic tests to guide treatment decisions. *Inpatient* - An **inpatient** is formally admitted to the hospital for an expected stay of more than 24 hours, often requiring a hospital bed overnight. - This classification is associated with specific billing and care delivery models distinct from observation status. *Outpatient* - An **outpatient** receives medical care at a hospital, clinic, or doctor's office without being admitted for an overnight stay. - Examples include routine check-ups, specialist consultations, and minor surgical procedures performed on the same day. *Urgent care patient* - An **urgent care patient** receives immediate medical attention for illnesses or injuries that are not life-threatening but require prompt treatment. - This care is typically provided in an urgent care clinic, not usually in a hospital setting for 24-hour observation.
Question 784: Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?
- A. 150 INR
- B. 500 INR (Correct Answer)
- C. 1000 INR
- D. 250 INR
Explanation: ***500 INR*** - Under the **National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP)**, a **DOTS provider** receives an honorarium of **INR 500** upon the successful completion of tuberculosis treatment for a **new TB patient**. - This incentive, revised from the earlier amount of INR 250, aims to recognize the crucial role of DOTS providers in ensuring treatment adherence and successful outcomes. - The increased honorarium reflects the government's commitment to incentivizing community participation in TB elimination. *150 INR* - This amount is **significantly lower than the stipulated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under current NTEP guidelines. - The correct incentive for successful completion of treatment is INR 500 for new TB cases. *250 INR* - This was the **earlier honorarium amount** under the previous NTEP guidelines, which has since been **revised upward**. - Under the current NTEP incentive structure, the honorarium for treatment completion has been increased to INR 500. *1000 INR* - This amount is **higher than the designated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under NTEP. - While this figure may apply to other incentive schemes or different milestones, the standard honorarium for new TB case completion is INR 500.
ENT
3 questionsWhich of the following statements about malignant otitis externa is true?
Chemical labyrinthectomy by transtympanic route is done in Meniere's disease using which drug?
Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss?
NEET-PG 2015 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 781: Which of the following statements about malignant otitis externa is true?
- A. Not painful
- B. Common in diabetics and old age (Correct Answer)
- C. Caused by streptococcus
- D. Responds to topical antibiotics alone
Explanation: ***Common in diabetics and old age*** - **Malignant otitis externa** is an aggressive infection primarily affecting the external auditory canal and surrounding structures. - It most commonly occurs in **immunocompromised individuals**, especially **elderly diabetics**, due to impaired immune response and microvascular complications. *Not painful* - Malignant otitis externa is characterized by **severe, unrelenting otalgia (ear pain)** that often worsens at night and is disproportionate to the clinical findings. - The pain is due to the **inflammatory and destructive process** involving cartilage, bone, and nerves. *Caused by streptococcus* - The most common causative organism for malignant otitis externa is **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** (>90% of cases), not Streptococcus. - **Streptococcus species** are more commonly associated with acute otitis media or common skin infections. *Responds to topical antibiotics alone* - Malignant otitis externa requires **prolonged systemic antibiotic therapy** (typically 4-6 weeks of intravenous or oral fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin). - Topical antibiotics alone are **insufficient** due to the invasive nature of the infection, which extends beyond the external canal to involve bone and soft tissues.
Question 782: Chemical labyrinthectomy by transtympanic route is done in Meniere's disease using which drug?
- A. Amikacin
- B. Amoxycillin
- C. Cyclosporine
- D. Gentamicin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gentamicin*** - **Gentamicin** is an **aminoglycoside antibiotic** that is commonly used for chemical labyrinthectomy due to its **ototoxic** properties, particularly its selective toxicity to **vestibular hair cells** at lower doses. - When administered transtympanically, it achieves high concentrations in the **inner ear fluid**, effectively ablating the vestibular function and reducing severe vertigo in **Meniere's disease**. *Amikacin* - **Amikacin** is also an **aminoglycoside antibiotic** with ototoxic potential, but it is typically reserved for severe bacterial infections and is not the primary drug of choice for **chemical labyrinthectomy** in Meniere's disease. - While it can cause hearing loss, **gentamicin** has a more established and preferential effect on the **vestibular system** at therapeutic doses for Meniere's. *Amoxycillin* - **Amoxycillin** is a common **beta-lactam antibiotic** used for bacterial infections, and it does not possess **ototoxic** properties that would make it suitable for chemical labyrinthectomy. - It is primarily known for its antibacterial action and has no role in the management of vertigo in **Meniere's disease** via transtympanic administration. *Cyclosporine* - **Cyclosporine** is an **immunosuppressant drug** used to prevent organ rejection and treat autoimmune conditions; it does not have properties for chemical ablation of the labyrinth. - While some autoimmune components are sometimes considered in Meniere's disease, cyclosporine is not used for **transtympanic chemical labyrinthectomy**.
Question 783: Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss?
- A. Recruitment
- B. Threshold tone decay test
- C. Evoked response audiometry (Correct Answer)
- D. SISI test
Explanation: **Evoked response audiometry** - **Evoked response audiometry (ERA)**, specifically **Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR)** or **Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)**, is the gold standard for differentiating between cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss. - ABR measures electrical activity from the auditory nerve and brainstem in response to sound, allowing for differentiation between **cochlear pathology** (normal ABR latencies with hearing loss) and **retrocochlear pathology** (prolonged interpeak latencies, absent waves, or abnormal waveform morphology suggestive of auditory nerve or brainstem lesion). - Classic findings in retrocochlear lesions include prolonged I-V interpeak latency or absent Wave V. *SISI test* - The **Short Increment Sensitivity Index (SISI) test** assesses the ability to detect small (1 dB) increments in sound intensity superimposed on a continuous tone. - A **high SISI score (>70%)** indicates **cochlear dysfunction** due to recruitment phenomenon, while a **low score (<20%)** may suggest retrocochlear pathology. - However, it does not directly differentiate between cochlear and retrocochlear lesions with the same specificity and sensitivity as ABR. *Threshold tone decay test* - The **Tone Decay Test (TDT)** measures the ability to sustain the perception of a continuous pure tone presented at or near threshold level. - **Significant tone decay (>30 dB in 60 seconds)** suggests **retrocochlear pathology** due to auditory nerve fatigue, making it useful for screening. - While helpful, it is less precise, sensitive, and specific than ABR for definitive differentiation and may have false positives. *Recruitment* - **Recruitment** is an abnormal growth in the perception of loudness, where a small increase in sound intensity leads to a disproportionately large increase in perceived loudness. - It is a classic sign of **cochlear hearing loss**, particularly associated with outer hair cell damage (sensory hearing loss). - Its presence confirms cochlear pathology but its absence does not confirm retrocochlear lesions, making it less reliable as a differentiating test compared to ABR.
Physiology
1 questionsWhat is the intensity in decibel of normal conversation in humans?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 781: What is the intensity in decibel of normal conversation in humans?
- A. 30dB
- B. 60dB (Correct Answer)
- C. 90dB
- D. 150dB
Explanation: ***60dB*** - The sound intensity of **normal human conversation** is typically around **60 decibels (dB)**. - This level is considered **moderate** and is comfortably audible without causing discomfort or hearing damage. *30dB* - A sound intensity of **30dB** is characteristic of a **quiet whisper** or a **soft rustle of leaves**. - This level is much **quieter** than a normal conversation and would require closer proximity to be clearly heard. *90dB* - **90dB** represents a significantly **louder sound**, comparable to that of a **lawnmower** or a **heavy truck** passing by. - Prolonged exposure to sounds at this intensity can start to cause **hearing damage**. *150dB* - **150dB** is an **extremely loud** and potentially **painful** sound level, similar to a **jet engine at takeoff** or a **firecracker** exploding nearby. - Exposure to sounds this intense can cause **immediate and permanent hearing loss**.