NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not true about the Vi polysaccharide vaccine for typhoid?

Given at birth. ***Given at birth*** - The **typhoid Vi polysaccharide vaccine is not administered at birth**. It is recommended for individuals **2 years of age**. - Vaccines given at birth protect against diseases with significant **neonatal risk**, such as Hepatitis B and BCG (tuberculosis). - This is the **FALSE** statement, making it the correct answer to this "not true" question. *Single dose is given* - The Vi polysaccharide vaccine is administered as a **single 0.5 mL dose**. - This single dose provides protection against *Salmonella typhi* for approximately 3 years. - This statement is **TRUE**. *Revaccination at 3 years* - For ongoing protection, **revaccination is recommended every 3 years** for individuals at continued risk of typhoid exposure. - The booster dose maintains adequate protective antibody levels. - This statement is **TRUE**. *Given intramuscularly* - The Vi polysaccharide vaccine is administered via the **intramuscular (IM) route**, typically in the deltoid muscle. - This is the standard recommended route of administration. - This statement is **TRUE**.

Q: Which of the following is a non-motile bacterium?

Clostridium perfringens. ***Clostridium perfringens*** - *Clostridium perfringens* is unique among the *Clostridium* species for being **non-motile**, lacking flagella. - This immotility distinguishes it from other closely related bacteria and is an important characteristic in its identification. *Vibrio* - *Vibrio* species are **highly motile**, possessing a single **polar flagellum** that enables rapid movement in liquid environments. - Their motility is crucial for their survival and pathogenesis, particularly in aquatic habitats and the human intestine. *Legionella* - *Legionella* species, including *Legionella pneumophila*, are **motile** by means of one or more **polar flagella**. - Their motility is important for disseminating within water systems and for infecting macrophages. *Clostridium septicum* - *Clostridium septicum* is a **motile** bacterium, possessing **peritrichous flagella** that allow it to move through tissues. - Its motility contributes to its ability to spread rapidly in infected hosts, often causing severe gas gangrene.

Q: Which of the following is non-motile:

Burkholderia mallei. ***Burkholderia mallei*** - This bacterium is notably **non-motile**, lacking flagella, which is a key characteristic differentiating it from other members of its genus. - It is a **facultative intracellular pathogen** capable of surviving within host cells, primarily causing **glanders** in equids and occasional human infections. - Its immobility is a significant feature in its identification and pathogenesis. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - This bacterium is highly **motile** due to the presence of **polar flagella**. - Its motility contributes to its ability to colonize and invade host tissues, common in opportunistic infections. *Burkholderia pseudomallei* - This species is known to be **motile** by means of flagella, which aids its survival and dissemination in diverse environments and within a host. - It is the causative agent of **melioidosis**, a severe infectious disease. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Burkholderia mallei** is indeed non-motile, making it a correct choice among the provided options. - The other specified bacteria, *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* and *Burkholderia pseudomallei*, are motile.

Q: Phagocytosis of mycobacterium tuberculosis by macrophages is mainly mediated by:

Interferon Gamma. ***Interferon Gamma*** - **Interferon gamma (IFN-γ)** is the most critical cytokine for **macrophage activation** in tuberculosis, enabling effective phagocytosis and intracellular killing of **Mycobacterium tuberculosis**. - IFN-γ (produced by **Th1 cells** and **NK cells**) primes macrophages by: - Enhancing **phagosome-lysosome fusion** - Increasing expression of **Fc receptors** and **complement receptors** for better opsonization - Stimulating production of **reactive oxygen species (ROS)** and **nitric oxide (NO)** - Upregulating **MHC class II** for improved antigen presentation - Without IFN-γ, macrophages cannot effectively control intracellular mycobacterial growth (as seen in **IFN-γ or IL-12 receptor deficiencies** leading to disseminated mycobacterial infections). *Interleukin 6* - **IL-6** is a pro-inflammatory cytokine involved in **acute-phase responses**, fever induction, and B-cell differentiation. - While it contributes to systemic inflammatory responses in TB, it does not directly activate macrophages for mycobacterial phagocytosis and killing. *Interleukin 3* - **IL-3** is a **hematopoietic growth factor** that promotes proliferation and differentiation of myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells in bone marrow. - It plays no direct role in the effector functions of mature macrophages against *M. tuberculosis*. *Interleukin 12* - **IL-12** (produced by macrophages and dendritic cells) is essential for initiating **Th1 immunity** by promoting differentiation of naive CD4+ T cells into **Th1 cells** that produce IFN-γ. - IL-12 acts **upstream** of IFN-γ in the immune cascade but does not directly mediate macrophage phagocytic function. - The **IL-12/IFN-γ axis** is critical for TB immunity, but IFN-γ is the direct macrophage activator.

Q: Which test is used to differentiate staphylococci from micrococci?

Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) test. ***Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) test*** - The **oxidation-fermentation (O/F) test** is used to determine whether an organism metabolizes carbohydrates strictly oxidatively, fermentatively, or both. - **Staphylococci** are facultative anaerobes that ferment glucose, while **micrococci** are strict aerobes that metabolize glucose oxidatively, making this test key for differentiation. *Catalase test* - The catalase test differentiates **catalase-positive** organisms (like both Staphylococci and Micrococci) from **catalase-negative** organisms (like Streptococci). - Since both Staphylococci and Micrococci are catalase-positive, this test cannot differentiate between them. *Coagulase test* - The coagulase test differentiates **Staphylococcus aureus** (coagulase-positive) from other **coagulase-negative Staphylococci (CoNS)**. - This test is specific for distinguishing within the Staphylococcus genus and does not apply to Micrococci. *Novobiocin sensitivity* - Novobiocin sensitivity is primarily used to differentiate **Staphylococcus saprophyticus** (resistant) from other **coagulase-negative Staphylococci** (sensitive). - It is not used to distinguish between the genera Staphylococci and Micrococci.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about Corynebacterium hofmannii?

Toxigenic. ***Toxigenic*** - *Corynebacterium hofmannii* is a **non-toxigenic** species and does not produce **diphtheria toxin**, unlike *C. diphtheriae*. - Its clinical significance primarily relates to its potential role in opportunistic infections, not toxin-mediated diseases. - This is the **correct answer** as C. hofmannii being toxigenic is NOT true. *A diphtheroid* - **Diphtheroid** refers to gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria morphologically similar to *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*. - *C. hofmannii* fits this description due to its characteristic morphology and belongs to the Corynebacterium genus. - This statement is TRUE. *Non-pathogenic saprophyte* - *C. hofmannii* is commonly found as a **commensal organism** on human skin and mucous membranes as part of normal flora. - While generally non-pathogenic, it can cause opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals. - This statement is TRUE. *Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat* - *C. hofmannii* is indeed found as part of the **normal respiratory tract flora**, including the throat and upper respiratory passages. - It is a common colonizer and generally harmless commensal. - This statement is TRUE.

Q: Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheriae is true?

Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration. ***Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration*** - The production of **diphtheria toxin** by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* is directly regulated by the iron concentration in the environment. - When **iron levels are low**, the diphtheria toxin repressor (DTxR) is inactivated, leading to increased toxin production. *All strains produce toxin* - Not all strains of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* produce the diphtheria toxin; only those strains that are **lysogenized by a bacteriophage carrying the tox gene** are toxigenic. - Non-toxigenic strains can cause other infections but do not produce the classic diphtheria disease. *The toxin is heat stable* - The **diphtheria toxin** is a **heat-labile** protein, meaning its activity can be destroyed by heat. - Heating diphtheria toxin to 60°C for 30 minutes can inactivate its pathogenic effects. *It inhibits cAMP* - The diphtheria toxin does not inhibit **cAMP**; instead, it acts by **ADP-ribosylating and inactivating elongation factor-2 (EF-2)**, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. - Inhibition of EF-2 ultimately leads to cell death.

Q: Heating a bacterial sample at 60°C for 30 minutes would isolate which of the following?

Enterococcus species. ***Enterococcus species*** - **Enterococcus species** are known for their ability to survive harsh conditions, including temperatures of **60°C for at least 30 minutes**. - This characteristic is often used in laboratories for selective isolation and differentiation from other bacteria like streptococci and staphylococci. *Staphylococci* - While some staphylococci are quite hardy, most species, including *Staphylococcus aureus*, typically do not tolerate **60°C for 30 minutes** as well as enterococci. - Exposure to this temperature would likely significantly reduce the viability of most staphylococcal species, making their isolation difficult. *Micrococci* - **Micrococci** are generally less heat-tolerant than enterococci and would likely be killed or severely inhibited by exposure to **60°C for 30 minutes**. - They are generally susceptible to temperatures that would be survivable for thermoduric bacteria. *Streptococci* - Most **streptococcal species** are not highly resistant to heat and would be inactivated by prolonged exposure to **60°C**. - This heat treatment is often used in laboratory procedures to differentiate enterococci from other streptococci, as enterococci were historically classified as Group D streptococci.

Q: Which of the following viruses is a member of the Herpesviridae family?

Herpes Simplex Virus. ***Herpes Simplex Virus*** - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** is the type species of the *Herpesviridae* family, which includes other common human pathogens such as **cytomegalovirus** and **Epstein-Barr virus**. - Members of this family are characterized by a **double-stranded DNA genome**, an icosahedral capsid, and an envelope, and they typically cause **latent infections**. *Variola* - **Variola virus** is a member of the *Poxviridae* family, known for causing **smallpox**, a historically devastating disease. - Unlike herpesviruses, poxviruses are **large and complex DNA viruses** that replicate entirely in the cytoplasm of infected cells. *Adenovirus* - **Adenovirus** belongs to the *Adenoviridae* family and is a **non-enveloped DNA virus** known for causing a variety of conditions, including respiratory infections and conjunctivitis. - Its structure and replication cycle differ significantly from the enveloped *Herpesviridae*. *HPV* - **HPV (Human Papillomavirus)** is a member of the *Papillomaviridae* family, which are small **non-enveloped DNA viruses** associated with warts and certain cancers. - It is distinct from herpesviruses in its genomic organization, capsid structure, and disease manifestations.

Q: HIV envelope is formed by:

Both. ***Both (Correct Answer)*** - The HIV envelope is a **composite structure** derived from both host and viral components - The **lipid bilayer** is acquired from the **host cell membrane** during viral budding - **Viral glycoproteins (gp120 and gp41)** encoded by the viral genome are inserted into this host-derived membrane - This makes the envelope a true hybrid structure essential for viral infectivity *Host cell (Incomplete)* - While the **lipid bilayer** of the envelope comes from the host cell membrane during budding, this alone does not form a functional envelope - The host cell provides the membrane scaffold but lacks the viral glycoproteins necessary for receptor binding and cell entry - Without viral proteins, the envelope cannot mediate infection *Virus (Incomplete)* - The virus encodes essential **envelope glycoproteins** (gp120 for receptor binding, gp41 for membrane fusion) - However, the virus does **not synthesize the lipid bilayer** itself - The viral genome lacks genes for lipid synthesis; the membrane must be acquired from the host *None of the options* - This is incorrect as the HIV envelope clearly requires contributions from **both** the host cell (lipid membrane) and the virus (glycoproteins)

Question 1

Which of the following is not true about the Vi polysaccharide vaccine for typhoid?

Accepted Answer

Given at birth

Answer

Given intramuscularly

Answer

Revaccination at 3 years

Answer

Single dose is given

Question 2

Which of the following is a non-motile bacterium?

Accepted Answer

Clostridium perfringens

Answer

Vibrio

Answer

Legionella

Answer

Clostridium septicum

Question 3

Which of the following is non-motile:

Accepted Answer

Burkholderia mallei

Answer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer

Burkholderia pseudomallei

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

Phagocytosis of mycobacterium tuberculosis by macrophages is mainly mediated by:

Accepted Answer

Interferon Gamma

Answer

Interleukin 6

Answer

Interleukin 3

Answer

Interleukin 12

Question 5

Which test is used to differentiate staphylococci from micrococci?

Accepted Answer

Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) test

Answer

Coagulase test

Answer

Novobiocin sensitivity

Answer

Catalase test

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT true about Corynebacterium hofmannii?

Accepted Answer

Toxigenic

Answer

Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat

Answer

A diphtheroid

Answer

Non-pathogenic saprophyte

Question 7

Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheriae is true?

Accepted Answer

Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration

Answer

All strains produce toxin

Answer

The toxin is heat stable

Answer

It inhibits cAMP

Question 8

Heating a bacterial sample at 60°C for 30 minutes would isolate which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Enterococcus species

Answer

Staphylococci

Answer

Micrococci

Answer

Streptococci

Question 9

Which of the following viruses is a member of the Herpesviridae family?

Accepted Answer

Herpes Simplex Virus

Answer

Variola

Answer

Adenovirus

Answer

HPV

Question 10

HIV envelope is formed by:

Accepted Answer

Both

Answer

Host cell

Answer

Virus

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

Microbiology