Anatomy
2 questionsIntercalated disc is present in:
Base of sphenoid fuses with occiput at the age of -
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: Intercalated disc is present in:
- A. Cardiac muscle (Correct Answer)
- B. Smooth muscle
- C. Skeletal muscle
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Cardiac muscle*** - **Intercalated discs** are unique structures found only in cardiac muscle, forming specialized cell-cell junctions [1]. - These discs contain **gap junctions** for electrical coupling and **desmosomes** for strong adhesion, allowing the heart muscle to contract in a coordinated fashion. *Smooth muscle* - **Smooth muscle cells** are spindle-shaped and lack striations and organized sarcomeres. - They do not possess intercalated discs; instead, communication and coordination are often mediated by **gap junctions** scattered along the cell membranes [2]. *Skeletal muscle* - **Skeletal muscle cells** are long, multinucleated, and highly organized with prominent striations [3]. - They do not have intercalated discs as individual muscle fibers are innervated separately and generally do not directly communicate via specialized junctions for coordinated contraction. *All of the options* - As **intercalated discs** are characteristic features *only* of **cardiac muscle**, this option is incorrect. - Their presence in all three muscle types would contradict the specific cellular organization of smooth and skeletal muscle.
Question 562: Base of sphenoid fuses with occiput at the age of -
- A. 20 years (Correct Answer)
- B. 30 years
- C. 40 years
- D. 50 years
Explanation: ***20 years*** - The **spheno-occipital synchondrosis** typically fuses by the age of **20 to 25 years**, marking the cessation of growth in the cranial base. - This fusion is an important indicator of skeletal maturity and is often used in **forensic anthropology** for age estimation. *30 years* - Fusion of the **spheno-occipital synchondrosis** beyond the early twenties is considered late and is not the typical age for this event. - By 30 years, most cranial sutures and synchondroses are already fused. *40 years* - At 40 years of age, the **spheno-occipital synchondrosis** would have been completely fused for many years, making this an incorrect age for the fusion process itself. - This age is well past the usual developmental timeframe for cranial base closure. *50 years* - Fusion at 50 years would be an **anomalous finding** as this synchondrosis is known to fuse much earlier in life. - By this age, the skull is fully mature, and fusion events of this nature have long since completed.
Dental
1 questionsWhat is the most common location for an extra permanent tooth to erupt?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: What is the most common location for an extra permanent tooth to erupt?
- A. Upper incisor (Correct Answer)
- B. Canine
- C. Molar
- D. Lower incisor
Explanation: ***Upper incisor*** - The most common supernumerary tooth is the **mesiodens**, which typically erupts in the **maxillary midline** between the central incisors. - This region is frequently affected by developmental anomalies that lead to the formation of an **extra permanent tooth**. *Canine* - While supernumerary canines can occur, they are **significantly less common** than supernumerary incisors or molars. - Their presence often causes **impaction or displacement** of adjacent permanent teeth. *Molar* - Supernumerary molars, particularly **paramolars** (buccal or lingual to molars) and **distomolars** (distal to third molars), are the second most common type of supernumerary teeth. - However, they are still **less frequent** than mesiodens in the incisor region. *Lower incisor* - Supernumerary lower incisors are **rare** compared to those in the upper arch. - When present, they can cause **crowding or malocclusion** in the mandibular anterior region.
Forensic Medicine
3 questionsWhich type of inquest is not conducted in India?
Which of the following statements best describes a key characteristic of fingerprint development?
For autopsy, stomach is opened through -
NEET-PG 2015 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: Which type of inquest is not conducted in India?
- A. Police inquest
- B. Magistrate inquest
- C. Coroner's inquest (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Coroner's inquest*** - A **Coroner's inquest** is a judicial inquiry conducted by a legally qualified person (Coroner) to determine the cause of death in specific circumstances, such as sudden, unexplained, or violent deaths. - This system, rooted in **English common law**, is not practiced in India, where other forms of inquests are prevalent. *Police inquest* - A **police inquest** is conducted under Sections 174-176 of the **Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)**, wherein police officers investigate the circumstances surrounding an unnatural or suspicious death. - The police gather evidence, interrogate witnesses, and prepare a **report** to determine if a crime has been committed. *Magistrate inquest* - A **magistrate inquest** is conducted by an Executive or Judicial Magistrate, particularly in cases of death in police custody, dowry deaths, or where there is suspicion of foul play. - This is a more formal proceeding aimed at determining the **cause of death** and assigning responsibility, as per CrPC. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Coroner's inquest** is indeed a valid answer (a type of inquest NOT conducted in India), making this "none of the options" choice wrong.
Question 562: Which of the following statements best describes a key characteristic of fingerprint development?
- A. Fingerprints are fully formed before birth. (Correct Answer)
- B. DNA analysis is the most specific method of identification.
- C. The most common type of fingerprint is loops.
- D. None of the options are true.
Explanation: ***Fingerprints are fully formed before birth.*** - Fingerprints begin to develop during the **fetal stage**, specifically between the 10th and 17th weeks of gestation. - Once formed, their unique ridge patterns remain **unchanged throughout life**, except for changes due to injury or disease. *DNA analysis is the most specific method of identification.* - While **DNA analysis** is a highly specific method of identification, the statement refers to its specificity generally, not as a characteristic of fingerprint development itself. - Fingerprints are a distinct form of identification based on unique **dermal ridge patterns**, independent of genetic material. *The most common type of fingerprint is loops.* - It is true that **loops** are indeed the most common type of fingerprint pattern, occurring in about 60-70% of the population. - However, this statement describes a characteristic of fingerprint patterns, not a key characteristic of their **development** or formation. *None of the options are true.* - This option is incorrect because the statement that **fingerprints are fully formed before birth** is a key characteristic of fingerprint development. - This option would only be correct if all other statements were false.
Question 563: For autopsy, stomach is opened through -
- A. Lesser sac
- B. Greater sac
- C. Greater curvature (Correct Answer)
- D. Lesser curvature
Explanation: ***Greater curvature*** - Opening the stomach along the **greater curvature** allows for a complete and unobstructed view of the entire gastric mucosa. - This approach minimizes damage to the medically significant **lesser curvature**, which is important for identifying conditions like ulcers or tumors that often occur in that region. *Lesser sac* - The **lesser sac** is a peritoneal cavity space behind the stomach, not an anatomical part of the stomach itself to be opened. - Accessing the stomach via the lesser sac is not a surgical approach for opening the gastric lumen. *Greater sac* - The **greater sac** is the main peritoneal cavity, referring to the general abdominal space, not a specific part of the stomach wall. - This option describes a general anatomical area rather than a specific incision line for the stomach. *Lesser curvature* - Opening the stomach along the **lesser curvature** is generally avoided in autopsy. - This area is prone to various pathologies like ulcers and gastric cancer, and incising it would disrupt potential diagnostic findings.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following statements is false regarding the declaration of brain stem death in a hospital?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: Which of the following statements is false regarding the declaration of brain stem death in a hospital?
- A. Presence of neurologist is not required
- B. Drug overdose should be ruled out
- C. All of the above (Correct Answer)
- D. Patient must be in coma
Explanation: ***All of the above*** - This option indicates that all the preceding statements are false. Let's analyze why each individual statement is indeed false in the context of brain stem death declaration [1]. - This implies there is a misunderstanding regarding each aspect of brain stem death criteria, which often requires specific conditions like a neurologist's involvement (though not always strictly mandatory in all protocols), ruling out drug overdose, and the patient being in a coma. *Presence of neurologist is not required* - This statement is false because while it's not universally mandated that a neurologist be one of the two certifying doctors, one of them must be a **senior physician (consultant)** and both must be experienced in brain stem death diagnosis. - In many settings, especially for complex cases or where local protocols specify, a neurologist or neurosurgeon's involvement is highly recommended or required to confirm brain stem death. *Drug overdose should be ruled out* - This statement is false because the absence of drugs that could **mimic brain stem death (e.g., sedatives, muscle relaxants)** is a crucial precondition for testing [3]. - It is essential to ensure that the patient's neurological state is not confounded by reversible causes like drug intoxication before proceeding with brain stem death tests [3]. *Patient must be in coma* - This statement is false because while a patient declared brain stem dead will indeed be in a coma, the criteria for **brain stem death** specifically focus on the irreversible cessation of brainstem function [1], not merely a comatose state [2]. - A coma is a precondition for assessing brain stem death, but the declaration itself requires specific tests demonstrating the absence of **brainstem reflexes** [4] and **apnea** [3], confirming the permanent loss of brainstem activity.
Pharmacology
3 questionsWhich of the following drugs is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute asthma attacks?
Acetaminophen [Paracetamol] induced liver toxicity is due to which metabolite?
Which triptan is available in nasal spray form?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: Which of the following drugs is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute asthma attacks?
- A. Salbutamol (Correct Answer)
- B. Theophylline
- C. Terbutaline
- D. Budesonide
Explanation: ***Salbutamol*** - **Salbutamol** (albuterol) is a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)** that rapidly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle. - Its quick onset of action makes it ideal for immediate relief of **bronchoconstriction** during an acute asthma attack. - It is the **most commonly used** and **first-line rescue medication** for acute asthma worldwide. *Terbutaline* - **Terbutaline** is also a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)** similar to salbutamol and can be used as a rescue medication. - While it has comparable bronchodilator effects, **salbutamol is more commonly used** as the preferred rescue inhaler in clinical practice. - Both are SABAs, but salbutamol has become the standard first-choice rescue medication globally. *Theophylline* - **Theophylline** is a **methylxanthine** that acts as a bronchodilator but has a **narrow therapeutic index** and slower onset of action. - It is used as a **maintenance therapy** for chronic asthma and not as a rescue drug for acute exacerbations. *Budesonide* - **Budesonide** is an **inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)** used as a **long-term controller medication** to reduce airway inflammation. - It has a slow onset of action and is *not* effective for immediate relief during an acute asthma attack.
Question 562: Acetaminophen [Paracetamol] induced liver toxicity is due to which metabolite?
- A. Co-Q
- B. Cytochrome 'C'
- C. NAPQI (Correct Answer)
- D. N-acetylcysteine
Explanation: ***NAPQI*** - **N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI)** is a highly reactive and toxic metabolite produced during acetaminophen metabolism, especially in overdose situations [1, 3]. - When glutathione stores are depleted due to excessive NAPQI formation, this metabolite covalently binds to hepatic macromolecules, causing **hepatocellular damage and necrosis** [1, 3].*N-acetylcysteine* - **N-acetylcysteine (NAC)** is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, not the toxic metabolite itself [2, 3]. - NAC works by replenishing hepatic **glutathione stores**, which helps detoxify NAPQI and prevent liver injury [2, 3].*Co-Q* - **Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10)** is an endogenous antioxidant and electron carrier in the mitochondrial respiratory chain. - It is not a metabolite of acetaminophen and plays no direct role in acetaminophen-induced liver toxicity.*Cytochrome 'C'* - **Cytochrome c** is a protein involved in the electron transport chain in mitochondria and plays a critical role in apoptosis. - While cellular damage from NAPQI can eventually lead to cytochrome c release and apoptosis, cytochrome c itself is not a metabolite of acetaminophen or the direct cause of toxicity.
Question 563: Which triptan is available in nasal spray form?
- A. Sumatriptan (Correct Answer)
- B. Rizatriptan
- C. Naratriptan
- D. Frovatriptan
Explanation: ***Sumatriptan*** - **Sumatriptan** is available in multiple formulations, including **oral, subcutaneous injection, and nasal spray**, making it versatile for migraine treatment [1], [2]. - The nasal spray formulation allows for **faster absorption** and onset of action, which can be beneficial for patients with nausea or vomiting during migraine attacks [1]. *Rizatriptan* - **Rizatriptan** is primarily available in **oral tablet** and **orally disintegrating tablet** (ODT) forms [2]. - It does not have a commonly available nasal spray formulation for migraine treatment [2]. *Naratriptan* - **Naratriptan** is available as an **oral tablet** and is known for its **longer half-life** and generally milder side effect profile compared to sumatriptan [2]. - It is not available in a nasal spray formulation [2]. *Frovatriptan* - **Frovatriptan** is available exclusively as an **oral tablet** and is notable for having the **longest half-life** among triptans, making it useful for preventing recurring migraines [2]. - There is no nasal spray formulation for frovatriptan [2].