NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase is?

Tetrahydrobiopterin. ***Tetrahydrobiopterin*** - **Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)** is an essential coenzyme for aromatic amino acid hydroxylases, including **phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)**. - PAH converts **phenylalanine** to **tyrosine**, and deficiencies in BH4 or PAH itself lead to *phenylketonuria (PKU)*. *Tetrahydrofolate* - **Tetrahydrofolate (THF)** is a coenzyme derived from **folic acid** and is primarily involved in **one-carbon metabolism**, including **purine** and **pyrimidine synthesis**, and various amino acid interconversions. - It does not directly act as a coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase. *Pyridoxal phosphate* - **Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)**, a derivative of **vitamin B6**, is a crucial coenzyme for many enzymes involved in **amino acid metabolism**, particularly in **transamination**, **decarboxylation**, and side-chain cleavage reactions. - It is not the coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase. *S-adenosyl methionine* - **S-adenosyl methionine (SAM)** is a major **methyl donor** in various biochemical reactions, important for the synthesis of **neurotransmitters**, **hormones**, and **phospholipids**. - While essential for many metabolic pathways, it is not involved as a coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase.

Q: Which protein is responsible for conserving iron in the body?

Ferritin. ***Ferritin*** - **Ferritin** is the primary intracellular protein that **conserves iron** in the body by storing it in a safe, non-toxic, and bioavailable form - It is found mainly in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow, serving as the body's **iron reserve** - When iron is abundant, ferritin stores it; when iron is needed, ferritin releases it, thus **conserving iron for future use** - Serum ferritin levels directly reflect total body iron stores *Hepcidin* - **Hepcidin** is a regulatory peptide hormone that controls iron homeostasis by inhibiting **ferroportin**, the iron export channel - It reduces iron absorption from the intestine and iron release from macrophages during inflammation or iron overload - While it regulates iron distribution, it is a hormone, not a storage protein, and does not directly conserve iron within cells *Hemopexin* - **Hemopexin** binds free **heme** in plasma, preventing oxidative damage and delivering it to the liver for catabolism - It helps recover iron from heme but does not store or conserve iron in the body *Transferrin* - **Transferrin** is a plasma protein that **transports iron** from absorption sites (intestine) and storage sites (liver, spleen) to tissues that need it - Its role is iron delivery, not conservation or storage

Q: Caisson's disease is primarily associated with which of the following?

Underwater construction workers. ***Underwater construction workers*** - Caisson's disease, also known as **decompression sickness (DCS)**, is historically linked to workers in **caissons**, which are watertight structures used for underwater construction. - These workers experience changes in pressure that can lead to nitrogen bubbles forming in their tissues upon surfacing, causing the characteristic symptoms of DCS. *Rapid ascent in aircraft* - While rapid ascent in aircraft can cause **decompression sickness**, especially in unpressurized cabins, it is not the primary association for the historical term "Caisson's disease." - The term "Caisson's disease" specifically refers to the condition in workers exposed to **high atmospheric pressure** during underwater construction. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **underwater construction workers** are directly associated with Caisson's disease. - The question has a correct and specific answer. *Rapid ascent of deep sea divers* - **Deep-sea divers** are susceptible to decompression sickness due to rapid ascent, which is physiologically similar to Caisson's disease. - However, the specific term "Caisson's disease" most directly refers to the historical experience of **underwater construction workers** in caissons.

Q: Tache noire de la sclera is a postmortem finding related to which of the following?

The eye. ***The eye*** - **Tache noire de la sclera** is a postmortem phenomenon characterized by a **black spot on the sclera**, resulting from the drying out of the globe after death. - This finding is important in **forensic pathology** as it can help in estimating the postmortem interval if the eyes are open. *Muscle tissue* - Postmortem changes in muscle tissue include **rigor mortis** (stiffening of muscles) and **livor mortis** (discoloration of skin due to blood pooling), neither of which are described as "tache noire de la sclera." - These changes relate to muscle biochemistry and gravity, not specific changes to the sclera. *Hair follicles* - Hair follicles are not associated with "tache noire de la sclera." Postmortem changes related to hair would involve **hair growth assessment** or decomposition changes affecting the scalp. - The phenomenon described is specific to ocular structures. *Skin* - While skin shows prominent postmortem changes such as **livor mortis**, **marbling**, and **decomposition**, these are distinct from tache noire de la sclera. - Tache noire specifically refers to the **drying and darkening of the exposed sclera**, not cutaneous changes.

Q: Interleukin responsible for Pyrexia is:

IL1. ***IL1*** - **Interleukin-1 (IL-1)** is a primary **endogenous pyrogen**, directly acting on the thermoregulatory center in the hypothalamus to induce fever. - It stimulates the production of **prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)**, which then alters the hypothalamic set point, leading to increased body temperature. *IL3* - **Interleukin-3 (IL-3)** is a **hematopoietic growth factor** that primarily stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells. - Its main role is in the development of various blood cell lineages, not directly in inducing fever. *IL4* - **Interleukin-4 (IL-4)** is a key cytokine in **allergic reactions** and **Th2 immune responses**, promoting B cell activation and IgE production. - It does not directly cause pyrexia; its primary functions are related to humoral immunity and immune regulation. *IL8* - **Interleukin-8 (IL-8)**, also known as **CXCL8**, is a potent **chemotactic factor** for neutrophils and other immune cells. - Its main function is to recruit inflammatory cells to sites of infection or injury, not to induce fever directly.

Q: Which of the following is an example of an antiapoptotic gene?

FLIP. ***FLIP*** - **FLIP** is an **antiapoptotic gene** that inhibits the activation of caspase-8, thereby blocking the extrinsic apoptotic pathway. - It acts as an **FLICE-inhibitory protein**, preventing the formation of the death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) or its downstream activation. *P53* - **P53** is a **tumor suppressor gene** that promotes apoptosis in response to DNA damage or cellular stress. - It is a **pro-apoptotic gene**, orchestrating cell cycle arrest and apoptosis to prevent the propagation of damaged cells. *BAX* - **BAX** is a **pro-apoptotic gene** belonging to the Bcl-2 family, which promotes the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria. - This release initiates the **intrinsic apoptotic pathway**, leading to caspase activation and cell death. *BIM* - **BIM** is a **pro-apoptotic gene** of the Bcl-2 family, acting as a sensitizer for apoptosis by binding to and inhibiting anti-apoptotic Bcl-2 family proteins. - Its activation leads to the **neutralization of survival factors**, thereby promoting mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization and apoptosis.

Q: Which antitubercular drug makes the patient non-infective the earliest?

Isoniazid (INH). ***Isoniazid (INH)*** - **Isoniazid** renders TB patients **non-infectious the fastest**, typically within **2-3 days** of starting treatment - It has the most **rapid bactericidal effect** against actively multiplying extracellular **Mycobacterium tuberculosis**, which are the primary organisms responsible for transmission - INH works by inhibiting **mycolic acid synthesis**, disrupting the bacterial cell wall of rapidly dividing bacilli - This makes it the most critical drug for **early infection control** and reducing community transmission *Rifampin* - While **rifampin** is highly bactericidal and has excellent sterilizing activity, it takes **slightly longer** than INH to render patients non-infectious - Rifampin is particularly effective against **semi-dormant organisms** and intracellular bacilli - It is the most important drug for **preventing relapse** and shortening treatment duration, but INH acts faster in reducing infectivity *Ethambutol* - **Ethambutol** is primarily **bacteriostatic**, inhibiting arabinosyl transferase and interfering with cell wall synthesis - Its main role is to **prevent emergence of drug resistance** rather than rapidly reducing bacterial load - Has minimal impact on early infectivity reduction *Pyrazinamide* - **Pyrazinamide** is most effective against **semi-dormant bacilli** within macrophages and in acidic environments - Its **sterilizing activity** helps shorten overall treatment duration but does not contribute significantly to rapid reduction in infectivity - Works slowly and is not bactericidal against actively multiplying extracellular organisms

Q: What effect does morphine have on muscle tone?

Increased muscle tone. ***Increased muscle tone*** - Morphine **increases skeletal muscle tone** and can cause muscle rigidity, particularly with rapid IV administration (truncal rigidity). - It significantly increases **smooth muscle tone** in various organs including the sphincter of Oddi (causing biliary colic), bladder sphincter (causing urinary retention), and GI tract (causing constipation). - This increased tone in sphincters and smooth muscle is a well-documented effect mediated through **opioid receptor activation**. *Bradycardia (not increased heart rate)* - Morphine typically causes **bradycardia** (decreased heart rate) due to vagal stimulation and central effects, not tachycardia. - Increased heart rate would be atypical and not a primary pharmacological effect of morphine. *Miosis (not mydriasis)* - Morphine characteristically causes **miosis** (pinpoint pupils) due to stimulation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor nerve. - Mydriasis (dilated pupils) is seen with anticholinergics or sympathomimetics, not opioids. *Respiratory depression (not stimulation)* - Morphine causes **respiratory depression**, not stimulation, by reducing the responsiveness of brainstem respiratory centers to CO2. - This is one of the most dangerous adverse effects and the primary cause of death in opioid overdose.

Q: Mechanism of secretion of ammonia in distal tubule is?

Passive diffusion. ***Passive diffusion*** - Ammonia (NH3) is a **lipid-soluble molecule** that can readily cross cell membranes, including those of the distal tubule and collecting duct, down its **concentration gradient**. - This process is crucial for regulating **acid-base balance**, as NH3 traps H+ ions to form NH4+, which is then excreted. *Primary active transport* - This mechanism involves the direct use of **ATP hydrolysis** to move ions against their concentration gradient, which is not the primary way ammonia is secreted in the distal tubule. - While NH4+ can be secreted via active transport in some segments (e.g., substituting for K+ on the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb), free ammonia diffusion is distinct. *Symport* - **Symport** involves the co-transport of two or more different molecules or ions in the same direction across a cell membrane, powered by an electrochemical gradient. - This mechanism is not typically involved in the secretion of uncharged, lipid-soluble ammonia. *Antiport* - **Antiport** is a type of coupled transport where two different ions or molecules move in opposite directions across a membrane. - While antiport systems are essential for various renal functions (e.g., Na+/H+ exchanger), they are not the primary mechanism for the secretion of free ammonia in the distal tubule.

Question 1

Coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase is?

Accepted Answer

Tetrahydrobiopterin

Answer

Tetrahydrofolate

Answer

Pyridoxal phosphate

Answer

S-adenosyl methionine

Question 2

Which protein is responsible for conserving iron in the body?

Accepted Answer

Ferritin

Answer

Hepcidin

Answer

Hemopexin

Answer

Transferrin

Question 3

Caisson's disease is primarily associated with which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Underwater construction workers

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Rapid ascent in aircraft

Answer

Rapid ascent of deep sea divers

Question 4

Tache noire de la sclera is a postmortem finding related to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

The eye

Answer

Muscle tissue

Answer

Hair follicles

Answer

Skin

Question 5

Interleukin responsible for Pyrexia is:

Accepted Answer

IL1

Answer

IL4

Answer

IL3

Answer

IL8

Question 6

Which of the following is an example of an antiapoptotic gene?

Accepted Answer

FLIP

Answer

P53

Answer

BAX

Answer

BIM

Question 7

Which antitubercular drug makes the patient non-infective the earliest?

Accepted Answer

Isoniazid (INH)

Answer

Ethambutol

Answer

Pyrazinamide

Answer

Rifampin

Question 8

What effect does morphine have on muscle tone?

Accepted Answer

Increased muscle tone

Answer

Respiratory stimulation

Answer

Decreased muscle tone

Answer

Mydriasis

Question 9

What is the PRIMARY mechanism by which the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger functions in cardiac muscle cells?

Accepted Answer

Na+-Ca2+ exchanger acts to remove Ca2+ from heart muscle cells

Answer

Na+-Ca2+ exchanger requires ATP directly

Answer

The Na+-Ca2+ exchanger operates in reverse mode during normal cardiac contraction

Answer

The Na+-Ca2+ exchanger primarily moves Ca2+ into cardiac muscle cells during systole

Question 10

Mechanism of secretion of ammonia in distal tubule is?

Accepted Answer

Passive diffusion

Answer

Primary active transport

Answer

Symport

Answer

Antiport

NEET-PG 2015

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Forensic Medicine

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology