NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Microglial cells. ***Microglial cells*** - **Microglial cells** are unique among glial cells as they originate from **mesoderm**, specifically from **monocyte/macrophage precursors** in the bone marrow [1]. - They function as the **immune cells of the central nervous system (CNS)**, scavenging for plaques, damaged neurons, and infectious agents [1]. *Macroglial cells* - This is a broad category that includes **astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells**, all of which are derived from **neuroectoderm**, not mesoderm [1]. - They perform various supportive roles but are distinct in origin from microglial cells [1]. *Oligodendrocytes* - **Oligodendrocytes** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and are responsible for forming the **myelin sheath** around axons in the CNS [2]. - Myelination is crucial for rapid and efficient nerve impulse conduction. *Ependymal cells* - **Ependymal cells** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and line the **ventricles of the brain** and the **central canal of the spinal cord**. - They play a role in the production and circulation of **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**.

Q: Transport of lipids from the intestine to other tissues is by -

Chylomicrons. ***Chylomicrons*** - **Chylomicrons** are the **largest lipoprotein particles** that transport **dietary (exogenous) lipids** from the **intestine** to peripheral tissues - They are synthesized in **intestinal enterocytes** after fat absorption and enter the bloodstream via the **lymphatic system (thoracic duct)** - They carry **triglycerides (85-95%), cholesterol, phospholipids, and fat-soluble vitamins** (A, D, E, K) - **Apolipoprotein B-48** is the characteristic structural protein of chylomicrons - After delivering triglycerides to tissues (via lipoprotein lipase), chylomicron remnants are taken up by the **liver** *LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein)* - LDL transports **cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues** (not from intestine) - It carries **endogenous cholesterol**, not dietary lipids from the intestine - Often called "**bad cholesterol**" due to its role in atherosclerosis - Contains **Apolipoprotein B-100** *HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein)* - HDL performs **reverse cholesterol transport** - moving excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues **back to the liver** - It does **not transport lipids from the intestine** to tissues - Called "**good cholesterol**" for its protective cardiovascular role - Contains **Apolipoprotein A-I and A-II** *VLDL (Very-Low-Density Lipoprotein)* - VLDL is synthesized in the **liver** (not intestine) and transports **endogenous triglycerides** to peripheral tissues - It carries lipids **from the liver**, not from the intestine - VLDL is converted to IDL and then LDL after losing triglycerides - Contains **Apolipoprotein B-100**

Q: Which method is used to separate a mixture of lipids?

Chromatography. ***Chromatography*** - **Chromatography** (e.g., thin-layer chromatography, gas chromatography, high-performance liquid chromatography) is widely used to separate lipids based on differences in their **polarity**, **molecular weight**, or **solubility** in various solvents. - This method allows for the isolation and identification of different lipid classes and individual lipid species from a complex mixture. *Electrophoresis* - **Electrophoresis** separates molecules based on their **charge** and **size** in an electric field, making it more commonly used for proteins and nucleic acids. - Lipids are generally **uncharged** or have very low charge, which makes them poorly suited for separation by standard electrophoretic methods without modification. *Isoelectric focusing* - **Isoelectric focusing** is a type of electrophoresis that separates molecules based on their **isoelectric point (pI)**, which is the pH at which a molecule has no net charge. - This technique is primarily used for **proteins** and **peptides**, as lipids typically lack ionizable groups necessary for establishing a distinct pI. *PAGE* - **PAGE** (Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis) is a common method used to separate **proteins** and **nucleic acids** based on their size and charge. - Lipids are **hydrophobic** and do not readily migrate through an aqueous polyacrylamide gel matrix, making PAGE unsuitable for their direct separation.

Q: Bile acids are synthesized from ?

Cholesterol. ***Cholesterol*** - **Bile acids** are derivatives of **cholesterol**, synthesized in the liver through a multi-step enzymatic pathway. - The conversion of cholesterol to bile acids is a primary mechanism for the excretion and transport of cholesterol from the body. *Heme* - **Heme** is a component of hemoglobin and myoglobin, primarily involved in oxygen transport and storage. - Its degradation product is **bilirubin**, which forms part of bile but is distinct from bile acids. *Ribulose* - **Ribulose** is a 5-carbon sugar, playing a key role in the **pentose phosphate pathway** and the **Calvin cycle** in photosynthesis. - It is not a precursor for bile acid synthesis. *Arachidonic acid* - **Arachidonic acid** is a polyunsaturated fatty acid that serves as a precursor for **eicosanoids** (prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes). - These molecules are involved in inflammation and immune responses but are unrelated to bile acid synthesis.

Q: Which anti-cholinesterase drug is known for its central nervous system activity?

Physostigmine. ***Physostigmine*** - Unlike most other anti-cholinesterases, **physostigmine** is a **tertiary amine** and is relatively lipid-soluble, allowing it to cross the **blood-brain barrier**. [2] - Its ability to increase acetylcholine in the CNS makes it useful in treating anticholinergic toxicity (e.g., atropine overdose). [2] *Pyridostigmine* - **Pyridostigmine** is a **quaternary amine** and does not readily cross the blood-brain barrier, primarily acting peripherally. - It is mainly used in the long-term management of **myasthenia gravis**. *Edrophonium* - **Edrophonium** is a very short-acting **quaternary amine** that does not cross the blood-brain barrier. [1] - It is primarily used for the **diagnosis of myasthenia gravis** (Tensilon test) due to its rapid onset and short duration of action. [1] *Neostigmine* - **Neostigmine** is also a **quaternary amine** with poor lipid solubility, meaning it has minimal central nervous system activity. [2] - It is commonly used to reverse the effects of **non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers** and in the treatment of **myasthenia gravis**.

Q: Which drug is not administered as a transdermal patch?

Morphine. ***Morphine*** - **Morphine** is generally not administered transdermally due to its **poor lipid solubility** [1] and **large molecular size**, which limit its ability to penetrate the skin effectively. - While experimental patches have been developed, they are **not widely available** or commonly used in clinical practice for systemic delivery. *Fentanyl* - **Fentanyl** is a potent opioid that is commonly administered via a **transdermal patch** for chronic pain management [2]. - Its **high lipid solubility** and small molecular size allow it to be effectively absorbed through the skin, providing sustained analgesia. *Clonidine* - **Clonidine** is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist available as a **transdermal patch** for the treatment of **hypertension**. - The patch provides a **continuous and steady release** of the drug, leading to consistent blood pressure control. *Diclofenac* - **Diclofenac** is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) available in **transdermal patch** formulations for topical pain relief. - These patches are used for localized pain conditions like **osteoarthritis** and provide targeted drug delivery with reduced systemic side effects.

Q: Maximum cycloplegic action of atropine is seen at ?

1-3 hours. ***1-3 hours*** - Atropine, a **non-selective muscarinic antagonist**, reaches its **peak cycloplegic effect** approximately 1 to 3 hours after topical administration. - This peak activity is crucial for accurate retinoscopy and **refractive error measurement** in children, as it effectively paralyzes the ciliary muscle. *4-6 hours* - While atropine's cycloplegic effect is still present at 4-6 hours, it is generally **past its peak action** by this time. - Slower-acting cycloplegics might have their peak around this window, but not atropine. *1-2 weeks* - The **duration of action** for atropine's cycloplegic and mydriatic effects can last for 1-2 weeks, but this is the total duration, not when the maximum action is observed. - Patients are often instructed about the **prolonged effects** and potential for blurred vision and photophobia over this period. *30-60 minutes* - While some mydriatic effects might start within 30-60 minutes, the **full cycloplegic effect** of atropine, which requires maximum paralysis of the ciliary muscle, is not achieved in this short timeframe. - Shorter-acting cycloplegics like **cyclopentolate** or **tropicamide** would show peak action within this earlier interval.

Q: Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at which opioid receptor?

Mu. ***Mu*** - Buprenorphine primarily acts as a **partial agonist** at the **mu opioid receptor**, providing analgesic effects with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression. - Its partial agonism at the mu receptor contributes to its lower potential for respiratory depression and overdose compared to full mu agonists. *Kappa* - While buprenorphine has some antagonist activity at the kappa receptor, its primary therapeutic action is not at this receptor. - **Kappa receptor agonists** like pentazocine can produce dysphoria and psychotomimetic effects. *Delta* - The delta opioid receptor is involved in analgesia and emotional responses, but buprenorphine has very low affinity and activity at this receptor. - **Delta receptor agonists** are not widely used clinically due to limited efficacy and side effects. *ORL-1* - The ORL-1 (Opioid Receptor-like 1) receptor, also known as the nociceptin receptor, is distinct from classical opioid receptors. - Buprenorphine has **no significant activity** at the ORL-1 receptor, which primarily mediates pain, anxiety, and learning.

Q: Which is the longest acting anti-cholinesterase?

Echothiophate. ***Echothiophate*** - **Echothiophate** is an **organophosphate** compound that irreversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to a prolonged duration of action, often measured in weeks. - Due to its **long-acting** and irreversible nature, it is primarily used in ophthalmic preparations for glaucoma but is not commonly used systemically. *Pyridostigmine* - **Pyridostigmine** is a medium-acting anticholinesterase, typically lasting **3-6 hours**, and is commonly used for the chronic management of **myasthenia gravis**. - Its effects are **reversible**, binding to the enzyme for a limited period. *Ambenonium* - **Ambenonium** has a longer duration of action than pyridostigmine, typically lasting **4-8 hours**, but is still considered a reversible inhibitor. - It was historically used for **myasthenia gravis** but is now less common due to the availability of other effective treatments. *Edrophonium* - **Edrophonium** is a very short-acting anticholinesterase, with effects lasting only **5-15 minutes**, making it ideal for the **Tensilon test** to diagnose myasthenia gravis and differentiate between myasthenic and cholinergic crises. - Its rapid onset and brief duration are due to its **reversible** and transient binding to acetylcholinesterase.

Q: Which diuretic is known to cause the maximum potassium loss?

Furosemide. ***Furosemide*** - Furosemide is a **loop diuretic** that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the **thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle**, leading to significant excretion of sodium, chloride, potassium, and water. - Its potent diuresis and impact on potassium reabsorption result in a **high risk of hypokalemia**. *Thiazide* - Thiazide diuretics inhibit the **Na-Cl cotransporter** in the **distal convoluted tubule**, causing moderate sodium and water excretion, and some potassium loss. - While they can cause hypokalemia, their effect on potassium excretion is generally **less pronounced than loop diuretics**. *Acetazolamide* - Acetazolamide is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that acts primarily in the **proximal tubule**, inhibiting bicarbonate reabsorption and leading to increased excretion of bicarbonate, sodium, potassium, and water. - The potassium loss is due to increased delivery of sodium to the collecting duct, leading to enhanced potassium secretion, but it is typically **less severe than with loop diuretics**. *Spironolactone* - Spironolactone is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that acts as an **aldosterone antagonist** in the collecting duct, inhibiting sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion. - Instead of causing potassium loss, spironolactone actually **conserves potassium** and can lead to hyperkalemia.

Question 1

Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Accepted Answer

Microglial cells

Answer

Macroglial cells

Answer

Oligodendrocytes

Answer

Ependymal cells

Question 2

Transport of lipids from the intestine to other tissues is by -

Accepted Answer

Chylomicrons

Answer

LDL

Answer

HDL

Answer

VLDL

Question 3

Which method is used to separate a mixture of lipids?

Accepted Answer

Chromatography

Answer

Electrophoresis

Answer

Isoelectric focusing

Answer

PAGE

Question 4

Bile acids are synthesized from ?

Accepted Answer

Cholesterol

Answer

Heme

Answer

Ribulose

Answer

Arachidonic acid

Question 5

Which anti-cholinesterase drug is known for its central nervous system activity?

Accepted Answer

Physostigmine

Answer

Edrophonium

Answer

Pyridostigmine

Answer

Neostigmine

Question 6

Which drug is not administered as a transdermal patch?

Accepted Answer

Morphine

Answer

Fentanyl

Answer

Clonidine

Answer

Diclofenac

Question 7

Maximum cycloplegic action of atropine is seen at ?

Accepted Answer

1-3 hours

Answer

1-2 weeks

Answer

4-6 hours

Answer

30-60 minutes

Question 8

Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at which opioid receptor?

Accepted Answer

Mu

Answer

Kappa

Answer

Delta

Answer

ORL-1

Question 9

Which is the longest acting anti-cholinesterase?

Accepted Answer

Echothiophate

Answer

Pyridostigmine

Answer

Ambenonium

Answer

Edrophonium

Question 10

Which diuretic is known to cause the maximum potassium loss?

Accepted Answer

Furosemide

Answer

Spironolactone

Answer

Thiazide diuretics

Answer

Acetazolamide

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Pharmacology