NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Microglial cells. ***Microglial cells*** - **Microglial cells** are unique among glial cells as they originate from **mesoderm**, specifically from **monocyte/macrophage precursors** in the bone marrow [1]. - They function as the **immune cells of the central nervous system (CNS)**, scavenging for plaques, damaged neurons, and infectious agents [1]. *Macroglial cells* - This is a broad category that includes **astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells**, all of which are derived from **neuroectoderm**, not mesoderm [1]. - They perform various supportive roles but are distinct in origin from microglial cells [1]. *Oligodendrocytes* - **Oligodendrocytes** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and are responsible for forming the **myelin sheath** around axons in the CNS [2]. - Myelination is crucial for rapid and efficient nerve impulse conduction. *Ependymal cells* - **Ependymal cells** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and line the **ventricles of the brain** and the **central canal of the spinal cord**. - They play a role in the production and circulation of **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**.

Q: How many molecules of Acetyl CoA are produced from β-oxidation of palmitic acid?

8 acetyl CoA. ***8 acetyl CoA*** - Palmitic acid is a **16-carbon saturated fatty acid (C16:0)**. During β-oxidation, each cycle cleaves two carbons as **acetyl CoA**. - The formula for acetyl CoA produced is **n/2**, where n = number of carbons. For palmitic acid: 16/2 = **8 acetyl CoA molecules**. - Alternatively: Palmitic acid undergoes **7 cycles of β-oxidation** [(n/2) - 1 = 7], each producing 1 acetyl CoA (7 total), plus the final 2-carbon fragment forming the 8th acetyl CoA. *3 acetyl CoA* - This number is too low for a 16-carbon fatty acid. **Short-chain fatty acids** would produce fewer acetyl CoA molecules. - This value corresponds to β-oxidation of a **6-carbon fatty acid** (hexanoic acid), not palmitic acid. *6 acetyl CoA* - This number is also too low for a 16-carbon fatty acid. - This quantity would be produced from a **12-carbon fatty acid** (lauric acid), not palmitic acid. *16 Acetyl CoA* - This number is too high and would incorrectly imply that each carbon forms an acetyl CoA independently. - Sixteen acetyl CoA molecules would be produced from a **32-carbon fatty acid**, which is extremely rare in biological systems.

Q: What primarily forms the core of chylomicrons?

Triglycerides. ***Triglycerides*** - Chylomicrons are primarily responsible for transporting **dietary triglycerides** from the intestines to other tissues. - Their large core, composed mainly of **triglycerides**, allows efficient transport of these hydrophobic molecules. *Triglycerides and Cholesterol together* - While **cholesterol** is present in chylomicrons, it is less abundant than **triglycerides** and primarily exists as **cholesterol esters** in the core. - The core is not an equal mixture; **triglycerides** overwhelmingly dominate the volume. *Free fatty acids* - **Free fatty acids** are transported in the blood primarily bound to **albumin**, not within the core of chylomicrons. - Chylomicrons typically carry **esterified fatty acids** as part of triglycerides. *Triglyceride, Cholesterol and Phospholipids* - **Phospholipids** form the outer monolayer of the chylomicron, along with apoproteins, making them **amphipathic**. - They do not constitute a core component but rather the **surface interface** with the aqueous environment.

Q: Which of the following is not a part of extracellular matrix (ECM)?

Lectins. ***Lectins*** - **Lectins** are carbohydrate-binding proteins involved in various cellular processes but are typically found **on cell surfaces** or within cells, not as a major structural component of the ECM. - While they can interact with ECM components, they are not considered a direct structural element of the extracellular matrix itself. *Fibronectin* - **Fibronectin** is a critical **glycoprotein** in the ECM, playing a vital role in cell adhesion, growth, migration, and differentiation. - It links cells to collagen fibers and other ECM components, forming an essential scaffold. *Laminin* - **Laminin** is a major **glycoprotein** component of the **basal lamina**, a specialized layer of the ECM found beneath epithelial cells. - It helps in cell attachment, differentiation, and migration. *Proteoglycans* - **Proteoglycans** are macromolecules consisting of a **core protein** covalently linked to one or more **glycosaminoglycan (GAG) chains**. - They are abundant in the ECM, where they contribute to its structural integrity, hydration, and can regulate the diffusion of molecules.

Q: What is the classification of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)?

Glycoprotein. ***Glycoprotein*** - Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) is classified as a **glycoprotein** due to its structure, which consists of both **carbohydrate** and **protein** components. - This glycosylation is crucial for its function as a cell adhesion molecule and its recognition in diagnostic assays. *Lipoprotein* - **Lipoproteins** are complexes of lipids and proteins that function primarily in **lipid transport** in the blood. - CEA's primary role and structure are not related to lipid transport or being predominantly lipid-based. *Phosphoprotein* - A **phosphoprotein** is a protein that has been **covalently modified by the addition of a phosphate group**, a process crucial for cell signaling. - While proteins can be phosphorylated, the defining characteristic and major classification of CEA is its extensive glycosylation rather than phosphorylation state. *Nucleoprotein* - **Nucleoproteins** are proteins that are **structurally associated with nucleic acids** (DNA or RNA), such as histones or ribosomal proteins. - CEA does not have a structural or functional association with nucleic acids.

Q: What is the mode of inheritance for the most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets?

X-Linked Dominant (XD). ***X-Linked Dominant (XD)*** - The most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets is **X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets (XLH)**, which is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. - This condition is caused by mutations in the **PHEX gene** on the X chromosome, leading to impaired phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys. *Autosomal Recessive (AR)* - While some rare forms of hypophosphatemic rickets exist with **autosomal recessive** inheritance, they are not the most common. - These forms typically involve mutations in genes affecting phosphate transport or vitamin D metabolism, distinct from the primary defect in XLH. *Autosomal Dominant (AD)* - There are also rare **autosomal dominant** forms of hypophosphatemic rickets, such as hereditary hypophosphatemic rickets with hypercalciuria (HHRH) or autosomal dominant hypophosphatemic rickets (ADHR). - However, these are less common than the X-linked dominant form (XLH). *X-Linked Recessive (XR)* - **X-linked recessive** inheritance typically affects males more severely and exclusively, with carrier females usually unaffected or mildly affected. - In X-linked dominant conditions like XLH, both males and females are affected, though females may exhibit variable expressivity.

Q: Which antibody is primarily associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?

IgG. ***IgG*** - **Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** is primarily associated with **IgG antibodies**, which mediate hemolysis at body temperature [1]. - IgG antibodies typically bind to red blood cells and lead to their destruction by the **reticuloendothelial system** [1]. *IgM* - Often involved in **cold agglutinin disease**, not warm AIHA, as it primarily reacts at lower temperatures [2]. - Usually results in **hemolysis** in peripheral areas, like the extremities, rather than at normal body temperature [2]. *IgD* - Known primarily as a marker on **B cells**, it plays a minimal role in hemolytic anemia and is not involved in antibody-mediated hemolysis. - Lack of significant **serological presence** in autoimmune hemolytic processes makes it an unlikely candidate. *IgE* - Primarily associated with **allergic reactions** and parasitic infections rather than autoimmune hemolytic conditions [2]. - Does not typically participate in **hemolysis** or bind to red blood cells in AIHA.

Q: Reversible change from one cell type to another is known as -

Metaplasia. ***Metaplesia*** - Refers to the **reversible change** from one cell type to another in response to chronic irritation or damage [1][2]. - It often occurs as an adaptive response in **epithelial tissues**, such as in the respiratory tract in smokers [1][2]. *Hypertrophy* - Represents an **increase in cell size** rather than a change in cell type [2]. - It is often a response to increased functional demand, as seen in **cardiac muscle** in athletes. *Hyperplesia* - Refers to an **increase in cell number** within a tissue or organ, not a change in cell type [2]. - Common in conditions such as **benign prostatic hyperplasia** but does not involve differentiation into other cell types. *Dysplasia* - Indicates an **abnormal growth or development** of cells, leading to disordered morphology rather than a transformation into another cell type. - It is often a precursor to cancer but does not signify the reversible nature of metaplasia. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death, p. 49. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 85-92.

Q: What is a distinguishing feature of reticulocytes?

Presence of residual RNA and ribosomes. ***Presence of residual RNA and ribosomes*** - This is the **defining and most distinguishing feature** of reticulocytes that differentiates them from mature red blood cells. - Reticulocytes contain residual **ribosomal RNA** and other organelles that are lost when they mature into erythrocytes. - This residual RNA forms a **reticular (network-like) pattern** when stained with supravital stains like **new methylene blue** or **brilliant cresyl blue**, which is the basis for their name and identification. - The presence of RNA allows for **reticulocyte counting**, an important marker of bone marrow erythropoietic activity. *Slightly larger in size than RBCs* - While reticulocytes may be slightly larger (polychromatophilic appearance), size variation is **not specific** and overlaps significantly with mature RBCs. - Size is not a reliable distinguishing feature and is not used for identification or counting. *Mature in bone marrow* - Reticulocytes are **released from the bone marrow** as immature red cells and complete their maturation in the **peripheral circulation** over 24-48 hours. - They do not fully mature in the bone marrow; their presence in peripheral blood is normal. *Constitute approximately 1% of the red cells* - Normal reticulocyte count is **0.5-2%** (or approximately 1%) of total red blood cells in healthy adults. - This is a **population characteristic** indicating normal erythropoietic activity, not a distinguishing cellular feature.

Question 1

Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Accepted Answer

Microglial cells

Answer

Macroglial cells

Answer

Oligodendrocytes

Answer

Ependymal cells

Question 2

How many molecules of Acetyl CoA are produced from β-oxidation of palmitic acid?

Accepted Answer

8 acetyl CoA

Answer

3 acetyl CoA

Answer

16 Acetyl CoA

Answer

6 acetyl CoA

Question 3

What primarily forms the core of chylomicrons?

Accepted Answer

Triglycerides

Answer

Triglycerides and Cholesterol together

Answer

Free fatty acids

Answer

Triglyceride, Cholesterol and Phospholipids

Question 4

Which of the following is not a part of extracellular matrix (ECM)?

Accepted Answer

Lectins

Answer

Fibronectin

Answer

Laminin

Answer

Proteoglycans

Question 5

What is the classification of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)?

Accepted Answer

Glycoprotein

Answer

Lipoprotein

Answer

Phosphoprotein

Answer

Nucleoprotein

Question 6

What is the mode of inheritance for the most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets?

Accepted Answer

X-Linked Dominant (XD)

Answer

Autosomal Recessive (AR)

Answer

Autosomal Dominant (AD)

Answer

X-Linked Recessive (XR)

Question 7

Which antibody is primarily associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?

Accepted Answer

IgG

Answer

IgE

Answer

IgM

Answer

IgD

Question 8

Which of the following is a chromosomal instability syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Bloom syndrome

Answer

Fanconi anemia

Answer

Ataxia-telangiectasia

Answer

None of the options

Question 9

Reversible change from one cell type to another is known as -

Accepted Answer

Metaplasia

Answer

Hypertrophy

Answer

Dysplasia

Answer

Hyperplasia

Question 10

What is a distinguishing feature of reticulocytes?

Accepted Answer

Presence of residual RNA and ribosomes

Answer

Slightly larger in size than RBCs

Answer

Mature in bone marrow

Answer

Constitute approximately 1% of the red cells

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Pathology