Anatomy
2 questionsSeminal colliculus is present in ?
What structure passes through the quadrangular space?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Seminal colliculus is present in ?
- A. Testis
- B. Prostate
- C. Urethra (Correct Answer)
- D. Scrotum
Explanation: ***Correct: Urethra*** - The **seminal colliculus** (also known as the **verumontanum**) is a prominent ridge located on the posterior wall of the **prostatic urethra** - It contains the openings of the **ejaculatory ducts** and the **prostatic utricle** - This is a key anatomical landmark in the male urethra during endoscopic procedures *Incorrect: Prostate* - While the seminal colliculus is located within the portion of the urethra that passes through the prostate (prostatic urethra), it is not a structure *of* the prostate gland itself - The prostate is a gland that surrounds the urethra and contributes to seminal fluid - The seminal colliculus is an intraluminal urethral structure, not prostatic tissue *Incorrect: Testis* - The testis is the primary male reproductive organ responsible for **spermatogenesis** and hormone synthesis (testosterone) - It does not contain the seminal colliculus, which is located in the pelvic urethra *Incorrect: Scrotum* - The scrotum is an external dermal sac that houses the testes, epididymis, and lower spermatic cords - It provides temperature regulation for spermatogenesis - The seminal colliculus is an internal pelvic structure, not present in the scrotum
Question 262: What structure passes through the quadrangular space?
- A. Axillary nerve (Correct Answer)
- B. Radial nerve
- C. Median nerve
- D. Brachial Artery
Explanation: Axillary nerve - The axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery are the primary structures that pass through the quadrangular space. - Compression or injury within this space can lead to deficits in the axillary nerve's distribution, affecting the deltoid and teres minor muscles. *Radial nerve* - The radial nerve passes through the triangular interval, not the quadrangular space. - It supplies the triceps muscle and all muscles in the posterior compartment of the forearm. *Median nerve* - The median nerve travels through the cubital fossa and then down the anterior forearm, supplying most of the forearm flexors and some hand muscles. - It does not pass through any of the posterior axillary spaces. *Brachial Artery* - The brachial artery is the main arterial supply to the arm and runs anteriorly in the arm, deep to the biceps brachii muscle. - It does not pass through the quadrangular space; rather, the posterior circumflex humeral artery (a branch of the axillary artery) traverses this space.
Pathology
1 questionsLines of Zahn are LEAST likely to be seen in -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Lines of Zahn are LEAST likely to be seen in -
- A. Liver
- B. Kidney
- C. Heart
- D. Lung (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lung*** - **Lines of Zahn are LEAST likely in the lungs** because most pulmonary thrombi are actually **emboli that formed elsewhere** (typically in deep leg veins) and then **lodged in pulmonary vessels**. - These pre-formed thrombi developed in **low-flow venous environments** and therefore **lack the characteristic layered appearance** of Lines of Zahn. - Even when thrombi form in situ in pulmonary vessels, the vascular bed characteristics make Lines of Zahn formation less common compared to other sites. *Heart* - **Mural thrombi** in heart chambers (especially post-MI in left ventricle or in atrial fibrillation) commonly show **Lines of Zahn**. - The **high-flow, turbulent environment** with continuous cardiac contractions creates ideal conditions for alternating platelet-fibrin and RBC layer deposition. - These are classic examples of antemortem thrombi with visible Lines of Zahn. *Liver* - **Portal vein thrombosis** and **hepatic vein thrombosis** (Budd-Chiari syndrome) can exhibit **Lines of Zahn**. - Despite being venous, these vessels have **sufficient flow velocity and turbulence** to allow layered thrombus formation. - Lines of Zahn indicate the thrombus formed during life with flowing blood. *Kidney* - **Renal artery thrombosis** and **renal vein thrombosis** frequently show **Lines of Zahn**. - Both arterial and venous renal circulation have adequate flow dynamics for layered thrombus formation. - These represent antemortem thrombi formed in vessels with active blood flow.
Physiology
6 questionsWhat is the normal transpulmonary pressure during quiet breathing?
Damage to pneumotaxic center along with vagus nerve causes which type of respiration?
What is the total surface area of the respiratory membrane in a healthy adult human?
What is the Haldane Effect?
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Bohr effect?
What is the typical resting membrane potential (RMP) of smooth muscle cells?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: What is the normal transpulmonary pressure during quiet breathing?
- A. 0 to + 1 cm H2O
- B. 0 to -1 cm H2O
- C. +5 to +8 cm H2O (Correct Answer)
- D. - 8 to - 5 cm H2O
Explanation: ***+5 to +8 cm H2O*** - Transpulmonary pressure (P_tp) is the **difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure** (P_alv - P_pl). - During quiet breathing at **functional residual capacity (FRC)**, alveolar pressure is **0 cm H2O** (atmospheric) while pleural pressure is approximately **-5 cm H2O**, giving P_tp = **+5 cm H2O**. - At end-inspiration during quiet breathing, pleural pressure becomes more negative (**-8 cm H2O**) while alveolar pressure remains near atmospheric, resulting in P_tp ≈ **+8 cm H2O**. - This positive transpulmonary pressure gradient is essential to **keep the lungs inflated** against elastic recoil and prevent **atelectasis**. *0 to +1 cm H2O* - This pressure is far too low to maintain lung inflation against elastic recoil forces. - Normal transpulmonary pressure must be several cm H2O positive to counterbalance the lung's tendency to collapse. - This value would result in **near-complete lung collapse**. *0 to -1 cm H2O* - A negative or zero transpulmonary pressure would mean pleural pressure equals or exceeds alveolar pressure. - This condition would cause **immediate lung collapse (pneumothorax)** as there would be no pressure gradient to keep the lungs expanded. *-8 to -5 cm H2O* - This range represents **pleural pressure**, not transpulmonary pressure. - Pleural pressure is indeed -5 to -8 cm H2O during quiet breathing, but transpulmonary pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar and pleural pressures. - Confusing pleural pressure with transpulmonary pressure is a common error.
Question 262: Damage to pneumotaxic center along with vagus nerve causes which type of respiration?
- A. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
- B. Deep and slow breathing
- C. Shallow and rapid breathing
- D. Apneustic breathing (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Apneustic breathing*** - Damage to the **pneumotaxic center** prevents the normal inhibition of inspiration, leading to **prolonged inspiratory gasps**. - **Vagal nerve damage** further removes the inhibitory feedback from the lungs, exacerbating the inspiratory "holds" characteristic of apneustic breathing. *Cheyne-Stokes breathing* - This pattern is characterized by a **crescendo-decrescendo pattern** of breathing, interspersed with periods of **apnea**. - It is often associated with conditions like **heart failure**, stroke, or severe neurological damage, not specifically the pneumotaxic center and vagus nerve. *Deep and slow breathing* - This pattern can be seen in conditions like **Kussmaul breathing** (due to metabolic acidosis) or as a compensatory mechanism. - It does not directly result from the combined damage of the **pneumotaxic center** and the **vagus nerve**. *Shallow and rapid breathing* - This pattern is commonly seen in restrictive lung diseases, anxiety, or pain, where tidal volume is decreased and respiratory rate increased. - It does not reflect the **prolonged inspiration** that would result from a compromised pneumotaxic center and vagal input.
Question 263: What is the total surface area of the respiratory membrane in a healthy adult human?
- A. 30 m2
- B. 50 m2
- C. 75 m2 (Correct Answer)
- D. 100 m2
Explanation: ***75 m²*** - The **total surface area** of the respiratory membrane in a healthy adult human is approximately **70-80 m²**, with 75 m² being the most accurate estimate among the given options. - This large surface area is primarily attributed to the presence of approximately **300-500 million alveoli**, which are crucial for efficient gas exchange. - Modern measurements using **stereological techniques** have refined earlier estimates and established this range as the current standard. *100 m²* - This value represents an **older estimate** that has been revised downward with more accurate measurement techniques. - While historically cited in older textbooks, current physiological data supports a **smaller surface area** of approximately 70-80 m². *30 m²* - This value is significantly **underestimated** for the total respiratory membrane surface area. - Such a small surface area would result in highly **inefficient gas exchange**, leading to severe respiratory compromise and inability to meet metabolic demands. *50 m²* - While larger than 30 m², this is still an **underestimation** of the full respiratory membrane surface area. - It does not adequately account for the extensive and intricate branching of the **respiratory bronchioles** and the vast number of alveolar sacs.
Question 264: What is the Haldane Effect?
- A. O2 delivery by increased CO2
- B. CO2 delivery by increased CO2
- C. CO2 delivery by increased O2 (Correct Answer)
- D. O2 delivery by increased CO
Explanation: ***CO2 delivery by increased O2*** - The **Haldane effect** describes how **oxygenation of hemoglobin** decreases its affinity for **carbon dioxide (CO2)**, leading to the release of CO2 from the blood. - This is crucial in the lungs, where high oxygen levels promote CO2 unloading for exhalation. *O2 delivery by increased CO2* - This describes the **Bohr effect**, where an increase in **carbon dioxide (CO2)** or acidity in the tissues causes hemoglobin to release **oxygen (O2)**. - The Haldane effect is the converse, relating oxygen binding to CO2 release, not the other way around. *CO2 delivery by increased CO2* - This statement is inherently circular and does not describe a physiological effect. - It confuses the mechanism with the substance being transported. *O2 delivery by increased CO* - **Carbon monoxide (CO)** has a much higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen, forming **carboxyhemoglobin** and impairing oxygen delivery. - This is related to **carbon monoxide poisoning**, not a physiological regulatory effect like the Haldane or Bohr effects.
Question 265: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Bohr effect?
- A. Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with increased pH & decreased CO2
- B. Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with increased pH & CO2
- C. Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with decreased pH & increased CO2 (Correct Answer)
- D. Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with decreased pH & decreased CO2
Explanation: ***Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with decreased pH & increased CO2*** - The **Bohr effect** describes how **hemoglobin's (Hb) affinity for oxygen (O2) decreases** in the presence of increased **acidity (decreased pH)** and higher **carbon dioxide (CO2)** concentrations. - This physiological adaptation ensures that O2 is **released more readily** to tissues that are actively metabolizing (e.g., muscle during exercise), as these tissues produce more CO2 and lactic acid, leading to a drop in pH. *Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with increased pH & decreased CO2* - An **increased pH** (more alkaline) and **decreased CO2** actually **increase Hb's affinity for O2**, shifting the oxygen dissociation curve to the left. - This scenario promotes **oxygen loading** onto hemoglobin, typically occurring in the lungs rather than O2 release in the tissues. *Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with increased pH & CO2* - This statement combines an **increased pH** (which increases Hb-O2 affinity) with **increased CO2** (which decreases Hb-O2 affinity), leading to a contradictory and incorrect physiological effect based on the Bohr principle. - The net effect of an increased pH would typically dominate in terms of O2 binding. *Decreased affinity of Hb to O2 is associated with decreased pH & decreased CO2* - While **decreased pH** does reduce Hb's affinity for O2, **decreased CO2** would tend to increase it. - Therefore, this combination does not accurately represent the primary conditions that lead to a significant decrease in Hb-O2 affinity as described by the Bohr effect in active tissues.
Question 266: What is the typical resting membrane potential (RMP) of smooth muscle cells?
- A. -90 mV
- B. -70 mV
- C. -60 mV (Correct Answer)
- D. -40 mV
Explanation: ***-60 mV*** - Smooth muscle cells typically have a **resting membrane potential of -55 to -60 mV**, which is **less negative** compared to skeletal muscle (-90 mV) or neurons (-70 mV). - This relatively depolarized RMP allows them to be **more easily excited** and enables **spontaneous slow wave depolarizations** and pacemaker activity in some smooth muscle types. - The less negative potential is due to higher resting permeability to Na+ and Ca2+ compared to skeletal muscle. *-90 mV* - This is the typical resting membrane potential for **skeletal muscle cells** and **large myelinated nerve fibers**. - Such a highly negative RMP provides a **larger buffer against accidental excitation** and ensures precise voluntary control. - This value is maintained by high K+ permeability and active Na+/K+ ATPase activity. *-70 mV* - This is the characteristic resting membrane potential of **most neurons**, allowing for efficient generation and propagation of action potentials. - It represents a balance between depolarizing and hyperpolarizing influences, optimal for neuronal signaling. - This is more negative than smooth muscle but less negative than skeletal muscle. *-40 mV* - This value is **too depolarized** to be a stable resting potential for smooth muscle and would be **near threshold potential**. - At -40 mV, voltage-gated calcium channels would be significantly activated, causing sustained contraction rather than a resting state. - This might represent a **partially depolarized state** or the RMP of specialized pacemaker cells like cardiac SA node cells, but **not typical smooth muscle**.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich of the following structures does NOT pass through Calot's triangle?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Which of the following structures does NOT pass through Calot's triangle?
- A. Right hepatic artery
- B. Lymph node of Lund
- C. Portal vein (Correct Answer)
- D. Cystic artery
Explanation: ***Portal vein*** - The **portal vein** is located within the **porta hepatis** and does not pass through Calot's triangle, making it the correct answer to this question. - It carries venous blood from the **gastrointestinal tract** and **spleen** to the liver and is positioned medial and posterior to the structures within Calot's triangle. *Right hepatic artery* - The **right hepatic artery** is a key structure that passes through Calot's triangle and forms one of its boundaries. - It typically gives rise to the **cystic artery** within or near the triangle, making it an important anatomical landmark during **cholecystectomy**. *Lymph node of Lund* - The **lymph node of Lund** (cystic lymph node) is consistently found within Calot's triangle and serves as an important landmark. - Its presence helps surgeons identify the **boundaries of the triangle** and assess for inflammation or malignancy related to the gallbladder. *Cystic artery* - The **cystic artery** is a consistent structure within Calot's triangle, typically arising from the **right hepatic artery**. - It is routinely **ligated during cholecystectomy** and is one of the key structures surgeons must identify within the triangle.