NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Where do primitive red blood cells first originate during early embryonic development?

Yolk sac. ***Yolk sac*** - The **yolk sac** is the primary site of **hematopoiesis** during the first few weeks of embryonic development. - Primitive erythroid cells (red blood cells) originate here to supply the developing embryo with oxygen. *Liver* - The **liver** takes over as the main hematopoietic organ from about the 6th week of gestation, after the yolk sac [1]. - While it produces various blood cells, it is not the *first* site of primitive red blood cell formation. *Bone marrow* - **Bone marrow** becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis during the **fetal period** (around the 20th to 24th week) and continues throughout postnatal life [2]. - It is not involved in the initial production of primitive red blood cell formation in early embryogenesis. *Spleen* - The **spleen** plays a minor role in fetal hematopoiesis, mainly producing lymphoid cells and some myeloid cells, and can take on myeloid functions if the bone marrow is compromised. - It is not the initial site of red blood cell production in the early embryo.

Q: Which of the following statements are true regarding the visual cycle cascade?

All of the options are true. ***All of the statements are true*** The visual cycle cascade involves multiple interconnected events in phototransduction: **Light causes isomerization of 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal** - This is the **primary photochemical event** that initiates vision - Light absorption causes the **cis-trans isomerization** in less than a picosecond - This conformational change is the only light-dependent step in the entire cascade **Retinal is involved in the visual cycle** - **11-cis-retinal** serves as the chromophore bound to opsin forming rhodopsin - After isomerization to **all-trans-retinal**, it must be converted back to 11-cis-retinal - This regeneration occurs through the **retinoid cycle** involving RPE cells **Involves a conformational change in opsin** - The isomerization of retinal triggers **conformational changes in opsin** - This converts rhodopsin to **metarhodopsin II** (the active form) - Activated opsin then activates **transducin** (G-protein), amplifying the signal and leading to hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cells All three statements accurately describe essential components of the visual cycle cascade.

Q: Glucagon activates which enzyme ?

Adenylyl cyclase. ***Adenylyl cyclase*** - **Glucagon** binds to specific G protein-coupled receptors on target cells, activating the **Gαs subunit**. - The activated **Gαs subunit** then stimulates **adenylyl cyclase**, leading to the production of **cyclic AMP (cAMP)**, which mediates glucagon's metabolic effects. *Pepsin* - **Pepsin** is a protease produced in the stomach, involved in protein digestion, and its activity is regulated by **gastrin** and **acid secretion**, not glucagon. - It is synthesized as **pepsinogen** and activated by hydrochloric acid (HCl) at low pH. *Trypsin* - **Trypsin** is a digestive enzyme produced in the pancreas and secreted into the small intestine, primarily involved in protein digestion. - Its activation is dependent on **enteropeptidase**, which cleaves **trypsinogen**, and its activity is not directly regulated by glucagon. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **adenylyl cyclase** is indeed activated by glucagon as part of its signaling pathway.

Q: In the malate shuttle, how many ATPs are produced from one NADH?

2.5 ATP. ***2.5 ATP*** - In the **malate-aspartate shuttle**, mitochondrial **NADH** is regenerated from cytosolic NADH, and then enters the electron transport chain at **Complex I**. - **Complex I** entry means that NADH contributes to the pumping of enough protons to generate approximately **2.5 ATP** through oxidative phosphorylation. *1 ATP* - **1 ATP** is not the direct equivalent produced from the reoxidation of one NADH via the malate shuttle into the electron transport chain. - This value is typically associated with the direct hydrolysis of **ATP** or the energy equivalent of **GTP** produced in the citric acid cycle. *3 ATP* - Historically, **3 ATP** was the accepted stoichiometry for one NADH, but more accurate measurements of proton pumping and ATP synthase activity have revised this. - The value of 3 ATP per NADH does not reflect the most current understanding of mitochondrial bioenergetics. *2 ATP* - **2 ATP** is the approximate yield for **FADH2** entering the electron transport chain at **Complex II**, bypassing Complex I, and thus pumping fewer protons. - This value is not applicable to NADH transferred via the malate-aspartate shuttle, as NADH enters at Complex I.

Q: Which method is used to separate a mixture of lipids?

Chromatography. ***Chromatography*** - **Chromatography** (e.g., thin-layer chromatography, gas chromatography, high-performance liquid chromatography) is widely used to separate lipids based on differences in their **polarity**, **molecular weight**, or **solubility** in various solvents. - This method allows for the isolation and identification of different lipid classes and individual lipid species from a complex mixture. *Electrophoresis* - **Electrophoresis** separates molecules based on their **charge** and **size** in an electric field, making it more commonly used for proteins and nucleic acids. - Lipids are generally **uncharged** or have very low charge, which makes them poorly suited for separation by standard electrophoretic methods without modification. *Isoelectric focusing* - **Isoelectric focusing** is a type of electrophoresis that separates molecules based on their **isoelectric point (pI)**, which is the pH at which a molecule has no net charge. - This technique is primarily used for **proteins** and **peptides**, as lipids typically lack ionizable groups necessary for establishing a distinct pI. *PAGE* - **PAGE** (Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis) is a common method used to separate **proteins** and **nucleic acids** based on their size and charge. - Lipids are **hydrophobic** and do not readily migrate through an aqueous polyacrylamide gel matrix, making PAGE unsuitable for their direct separation.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?

Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.. **Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.** - In **smooth muscle**, the **myosin light chain (MLC)** must be phosphorylated by **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)** to enable interaction with actin and initiate contraction. - This phosphorylation causes a conformational change in the **myosin head**, increasing its ATPase activity and allowing cross-bridge cycling. *Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.* - **Calmodulin (CaM)** is crucial for smooth muscle contraction, as it binds **calcium ions (Ca²⁺)** forming a Ca²⁺-CaM complex. - This complex then activates **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)**, which phosphorylates myosin, triggering contraction. *None of the options.* - This statement is incorrect because one of the provided options, "Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction," is indeed true. *Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.* - Unlike **striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac)**, **smooth muscle** does not contain **troponin**. - Regulation of smooth muscle contraction is primarily **calcium-calmodulin-dependent**, with roles for **MLCK** and **MLCP**, rather than troponin.

Q: What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?

Cell membrane disruption. **Cell membrane disruption** - The **transient response** observed during electrode insertion in **EMG** is caused by the mechanical trauma of the needle disrupting the **muscle fiber cell membranes**. - This disruption leads to a brief depolarization and subsequent repolarization of the affected fibers, generating characteristic electrical activity. *Spontaneous muscle activity* - **Spontaneous muscle activity**, such as **fibrillation potentials** or **positive sharp waves**, occurs independently of electrode insertion. - While observed during EMG, these are indicative of **denervation** or **myopathy** and are not directly caused by the act of insertion itself. *Voluntary muscle contraction* - **Voluntary muscle contraction** is recorded when the patient actively contracts the muscle and results in **motor unit action potentials (MUAPs)**. - This is a distinct process from the transient activity produced by electrode insertion. *Induced muscle contraction* - **Induced muscle contraction** typically refers to activity caused by **nerve stimulation** (e.g., in nerve conduction studies) or direct electrical stimulation of the muscle. - This is not the mechanism for the transient response during simple electrode insertion.

Q: What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?

Central motor pathways. ***Central motor pathways*** - **Motor evoked potentials (MEPs)** are generated by electrical or magnetic stimulation of the **motor cortex** and primarily assess the integrity of **central motor pathways**, specifically the **corticospinal tracts**. - MEPs are the **gold standard** for monitoring **upper motor neuron** function during neurosurgical and spinal procedures. - The technique is most sensitive to dysfunction in the **brain and spinal cord** (central nervous system), making this their primary clinical utility. *Peripheral motor pathways* - While MEPs do eventually activate peripheral motor neurons to produce muscle responses, they are **not the primary tool** for assessing peripheral pathways. - **Nerve conduction studies (NCS)** and **electromyography (EMG)** are direct and more specific measures for evaluating peripheral motor nerve function. *Both central and peripheral motor pathways* - Although MEPs provide information about the entire motor pathway from cortex to muscle, their **primary diagnostic strength and clinical application** is in detecting dysfunction within the **central nervous system**. - The latency and amplitude of MEPs are most sensitive to **conduction abnormalities along the corticospinal tract**, not peripheral nerves. *Muscle regeneration* - MEPs do **not assess muscle regeneration** or intrinsic muscle health. - **Electromyography (EMG)** with needle examination and **muscle biopsy** are the appropriate methods to evaluate muscle regeneration and myopathic processes.

Q: Which protein primarily contributes to oncotic pressure in the blood?

Albumin. ***Albumin*** - **Albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein and its small size and high concentration make it the primary determinant of **oncotic pressure** in the blood. - Its presence in the capillaries draws water from the **interstitial space** back into the blood vessels, maintaining **fluid balance** and blood volume. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a crucial protein involved in **blood clotting**, where it is converted into **fibrin** to form a clot. - While a plasma protein, its contribution to **oncotic pressure** is minor compared to albumin, as it's less abundant and larger in size. *Globulins* - **Globulins** are a diverse group of proteins involved in immune function (**immunoglobulins**), transport (e.g., **alpha** and **beta globulins**), and clotting. - While they contribute to total plasma protein concentration, their collective impact on **oncotic pressure** is secondary to that of albumin due to lower concentrations and varied molecular weights. *Transferrin* - **Transferrin** is a specific **beta-globulin** that plays a vital role in **iron transport** in the blood. - Its primary function is not related to **oncotic pressure**, and its concentration is significantly lower than albumin.

Q: Increase in plasma viscosity is maximally caused by which plasma protein?

Fibrinogen. ***Globulin*** - Increased levels of **globulin** proteins, particularly in inflammatory or proliferative conditions, have a significant impact on plasma viscosity due to their **high molecular weight** [1]. - **Globulins** contribute to **hyperviscosity syndrome**, which can lead to clinical symptoms like fatigue and visual disturbances [1]. *Albumin* - While **albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein, its primary role is in maintaining **oncotic pressure**, not significantly affecting plasma viscosity. - An increase in albumin does not correlate with plasma viscosity increases to the extent seen with globulins. *All have equal effect* - Different plasma proteins do not have **equal effects** on viscosity; **globulins** and **fibrinogen** particularly influence it more than **albumin**. - The impact on viscosity varies significantly with protein concentration and type, making this statement inaccurate. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** does contribute to plasma viscosity but is typically less than that caused by globulins, especially when globulin levels are markedly elevated. - Its effect is more pronounced during **coagulation**, rather than in the general increase of plasma viscosity associated with inflammatory states. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 141-142.

Question 1

Where do primitive red blood cells first originate during early embryonic development?

Accepted Answer

Yolk sac

Answer

Liver

Answer

Bone marrow

Answer

Spleen

Question 2

Which of the following statements are true regarding the visual cycle cascade?

Accepted Answer

All of the options are true

Answer

Light causes isomerization of 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal

Answer

Retinal is involved in the visual cycle

Answer

Involves a conformational change in opsin

Question 3

Glucagon activates which enzyme ?

Accepted Answer

Adenylyl cyclase

Answer

Pepsin

Answer

Trypsin

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

In the malate shuttle, how many ATPs are produced from one NADH?

Accepted Answer

2.5 ATP

Answer

1 ATP

Answer

3 ATP

Answer

2 ATP

Question 5

Which method is used to separate a mixture of lipids?

Accepted Answer

Chromatography

Answer

Electrophoresis

Answer

Isoelectric focusing

Answer

PAGE

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?

Accepted Answer

Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.

Answer

None of the options.

Answer

Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.

Answer

Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.

Question 7

What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?

Accepted Answer

Cell membrane disruption

Answer

Spontaneous muscle activity

Answer

Voluntary muscle contraction

Answer

Induced muscle contraction

Question 8

What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?

Accepted Answer

Central motor pathways

Answer

Both central and peripheral motor pathways

Answer

Muscle regeneration

Answer

Peripheral motor pathways

Question 9

Which protein primarily contributes to oncotic pressure in the blood?

Accepted Answer

Albumin

Answer

Globulins

Answer

Fibrinogen

Answer

Transferrin

Question 10

Increase in plasma viscosity is maximally caused by which plasma protein?

Accepted Answer

Fibrinogen

Answer

Albumin

Answer

All have equal effect

Answer

Globulin

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Physiology