Biochemistry
2 questionsWhat type of receptor is the insulin receptor?
Calcium absorption is hampered by
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: What type of receptor is the insulin receptor?
- A. Guanylyl cyclase
- B. Adenylyl cyclase
- C. IP3-DAG
- D. Tyrosine kinase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tyrosine kinase*** - The insulin receptor is a **receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK)**, meaning it has intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity that phosphorylates specific tyrosine residues on itself and other intracellular proteins upon insulin binding. - This phosphorylation initiates a **signaling cascade** involving molecules like IRS proteins, PI3K/Akt, and MAPK pathways, leading to glucose uptake and metabolic regulation. *Guanylyl cyclase* - Guanylyl cyclase receptors, such as the **atrial natriuretic peptide receptor**, catalyze the conversion of GTP to **cGMP**, which acts as a second messenger. - This mechanism is distinct from the insulin receptor's direct protein phosphorylation. *Adenylyl cyclase* - Adenylyl cyclase is typically activated by **G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)**, leading to the conversion of ATP to **cAMP**, another second messenger. - The insulin receptor does not couple to G proteins or directly activate adenylyl cyclase. *IP3-DAG* - The **inositol triphosphate (IP3)** and **diacylglycerol (DAG)** pathway is primarily activated by certain **GPCRs** and involves the hydrolysis of PIP2 by phospholipase C, leading to calcium release and protein kinase C activation. - This pathway is not the primary signaling mechanism initiated by the insulin receptor.
Question 252: Calcium absorption is hampered by
- A. Protein
- B. Lactose
- C. Acid
- D. Phytates (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Phytates*** - **Phytates** (phytic acid) found in whole grains, legumes, nuts, and seeds bind to calcium, forming an insoluble complex that significantly **reduces its absorption** in the intestines. - This binding prevents the free calcium ions from crossing the intestinal wall into the bloodstream. *Protein* - **Protein** generally *enhances* calcium absorption, especially when consumed in moderate amounts, as some amino acids can form soluble calcium complexes. - However, very high protein intake, particularly from animal sources, *may* slightly increase urinary calcium excretion in the long term, but it does not directly hamper intestinal absorption. *Lactose* - **Lactose**, a sugar found in milk, is known to *enhance* calcium absorption. - It does so by creating a more acidic environment in the small intestine and by forming soluble complexes with calcium, making it more bioavailable. *Acid* - **Stomach acid** (hydrochloric acid) is crucial for calcium absorption as it helps to solubilize calcium salts from food. - A *reduced* acidic environment, such as from antacid use or certain medical conditions, would hamper calcium absorption, but acid itself is beneficial.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsIn which condition is the Doll's Eye Reflex tested?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: In which condition is the Doll's Eye Reflex tested?
- A. Hemiplegic
- B. Paraplegic
- C. Cerebral palsy
- D. Unconscious patients (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Unconscious patients*** - The **Doll's Eye Reflex**, also known as the **oculocephalic reflex**, is a brainstem reflex used to assess brainstem function in **comatose or unconscious patients** [1]. - It is positive if the eyes move in the opposite direction to the head turn, indicating intact brainstem pathways [1]. *Hemiplegic* - **Hemiplegia** refers to paralysis on one side of the body, often due to stroke or brain injury. - While it can be associated with altered consciousness, the Doll's Eye Reflex specifically tests brainstem integrity in unconscious states, not the motor deficits of hemiplegia itself. *Paraplegic* - **Paraplegia** is paralysis affecting the lower half of the body. - This condition primarily involves spinal cord damage and does not directly relate to the assessment of brainstem function using the Doll's Eye Reflex. *Cerebral palsy* - **Cerebral palsy** is a group of disorders affecting movement, muscle tone, or posture, caused by damage to the developing brain. - While individuals with cerebral palsy may have neurological impairments, the Doll's Eye Reflex is not a primary diagnostic or assessment tool for this chronic condition; it is used acutely in unconscious states.
Pathology
1 questionsWhat is the characteristic feature of neuropraxia?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: What is the characteristic feature of neuropraxia?
- A. Damage to the endoneurium
- B. Damage to the epineurium
- C. No structural damage to the nerve (Correct Answer)
- D. Damage to the axon
Explanation: ***No structural damage to the nerve*** - **Neuropraxia** is the mildest form of nerve injury, characterized by a **temporary block in nerve conduction** without structural damage to the axon or surrounding connective tissues. - This typically results in **temporary sensory and/or motor deficits** that fully resolve within weeks to months. *Damage to the endoneurium* - Damage to the **endoneurium** would indicate a more severe injury, such as **axonotmesis**, where the axon is damaged but the connective tissue sheaths are preserved. - This level of injury suggests that wallerian degeneration would occur distal to the lesion, leading to **slower and incomplete recovery**. *Damage to the epineurium* - Damage to the **epineurium**, along with the endoneurium and perineurium, signifies **neurotmesis**, the most severe nerve injury. - This involves a **complete transection of the nerve**, requiring surgical intervention for any chance of functional recovery. *Damage to the axon* - Damage to the **axon** itself, often alongside preserved connective tissues, is characteristic of **axonotmesis**. - While recovery is possible through axonal regeneration, it is **slower and less complete** than in neuropraxia.
Physiology
6 questionsWhich part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?
What is one of the specific functions of the primary motor cortex located on the anterior edge of the pre-central gyrus?
Which of the following neurons in the cerebellar cortex is primarily excitatory?
EPSP is due to?
During the sympathetic fight-or-flight response, what is the primary cardiovascular effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on skeletal muscle vasculature?
Maximum density of muscle spindle is found in?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Which part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?
- A. Cardiac ganglion
- B. Cervical sympathetic chain
- C. Adrenal medulla (Correct Answer)
- D. Thoracic sympathetic chain
Explanation: ***Adrenal medulla*** - The adrenal medulla acts as a modified **sympathetic ganglion**, directly innervated by **preganglionic sympathetic fibers**. - Upon stimulation, it releases a high concentration of **epinephrine** (adrenaline) and a smaller amount of **norepinephrine** (noradrenaline) into the bloodstream, acting as hormones. *Cardiac ganglion* - **Cardiac ganglia** are parasympathetic ganglia located in the heart, involved in regulating heart rate and contractility via acetylcholine release. - They do not secrete **catecholamines** but rather act as relay stations for parasympathetic innervation. *Cervical sympathetic chain* - The **cervical sympathetic chain** primarily innervates structures in the head, neck, and upper limbs, influencing functions like pupils, salivary glands, and sweat glands. - While it contains sympathetic neurons, its primary role is not the systemic release of **catecholamines** into the bloodstream. *Thoracic sympathetic chain* - The **thoracic sympathetic chain** provides sympathetic innervation to organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities, influencing heart rate, bronchodilation, and visceral blood flow. - Like other sympathetic ganglia, it releases norepinephrine at target organ synapses, but it does not serve as a major endocrine gland for systemic catecholamine release.
Question 252: What is one of the specific functions of the primary motor cortex located on the anterior edge of the pre-central gyrus?
- A. Control of voluntary movement (Correct Answer)
- B. Increase extensor muscle tone
- C. Perception of pain
- D. Inhibition of stretch reflex
Explanation: ***Control of voluntary movement*** - The **primary motor cortex (M1)**, located in the **precentral gyrus**, is critically involved in generating neural impulses that control the execution of **voluntary movements**. - It plays a key role in **planning and executing complex, skilled movements**, especially of the distal musculature. *Increase extensor muscle tone* - While motor pathways influence muscle tone, the primary motor cortex's most specific role is not simply increasing extensor tone; rather, it coordinates a wide range of movements involving both flexors and extensors. - **Spasticity** or increased muscle tone (often extensor) is more commonly associated with damage to the **corticospinal tracts (upper motor neuron lesions)**, which *prevents* the fine-tuning inhibitory control from the cortex. *Perception of pain* - **Pain perception** is primarily processed in the **somatosensory cortex** (postcentral gyrus), limbic system, and insula, not the primary motor cortex. - The primary motor cortex is responsible for **motor output**, not sensory interpretation. *Inhibition of stretch reflex* - While descending motor pathways can modulate spinal reflexes, the direct and primary function of the primary motor cortex is not the specific inhibition of the stretch reflex. - The **gamma motor system** and other spinal interneurons are more directly involved in modulating the sensitivity of the stretch reflex.
Question 253: Which of the following neurons in the cerebellar cortex is primarily excitatory?
- A. Purkinje
- B. Basket
- C. Golgi
- D. Granule cells (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Granule cells*** - **Granule cells** are the only neurons in the cerebellar cortex that are **excitatory**, utilizing glutamate as their neurotransmitter. - They receive input from **mossy fibers** and project their parallel fibers to Purkinje cells and other interneurons. *Purkinje* - **Purkinje cells** are the primary output neurons of the cerebellar cortex and are **inhibitory**, releasing GABA. - They integrate vast amounts of information and project to the **deep cerebellar nuclei**. *Basket* - **Basket cells** are **inhibitory interneurons** located in the molecular layer of the cerebellum. - They synapse on the somata of **Purkinje cells**, providing potent inhibition. *Golgi* - **Golgi cells** are **inhibitory interneurons** found in the granular layer of the cerebellum. - They receive excitatory input from **parallel fibers** and inhibit granule cells, forming an important feedback loop.
Question 254: EPSP is due to?
- A. Sodium ion influx (Correct Answer)
- B. Potassium ion influx
- C. Sodium ion efflux
- D. Calcium ion influx
Explanation: ***Sodium ion influx*** - An **Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP)** is caused primarily by the binding of an **excitatory neurotransmitter** to its receptor, leading to the opening of **ligand-gated ion channels** permeable to sodium (Na+) ions. - The **influx of positively charged sodium ions** into the postsynaptic neuron causes a **depolarization** of the membrane potential, making it more likely to reach the threshold for an action potential. *Potassium ion influx* - **Potassium (K+) influx** is not the primary mechanism for generating an EPSP; instead, **potassium efflux** (movement out of the cell) is typically involved in **repolarization** after an action potential or in generating **Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs)**. - The movement of K+ into the cell would make the membrane potential more negative, leading to **hyperpolarization** or preventing depolarization. *Sodium ion efflux* - **Sodium (Na+) efflux** is mediated by the **Na+/K+ pump** and is crucial for maintaining the resting membrane potential, but it does **not directly cause an EPSP**. - Pumping Na+ out of the cell would **hyperpolarize** the cell or oppose depolarization, making an action potential less likely. *Calcium ion influx* - While **calcium (Ca2+) influx** is vital for many neuronal processes, including **neurotransmitter release** from the presynaptic terminal, it is **not the primary ionic basis** for generating an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron itself. - Significant Ca2+ influx can occur during an **action potential** or lead to intracellular signaling, but it's not the main depolarizing current responsible for an EPSP.
Question 255: During the sympathetic fight-or-flight response, what is the primary cardiovascular effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on skeletal muscle vasculature?
- A. Increased blood flow to muscles (Correct Answer)
- B. Increased blood flow to the skin
- C. Bronchoconstriction
- D. Decreased heart rate
Explanation: ***Increased blood flow to muscles*** - **Epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** cause **vasodilation** in skeletal muscle arterioles, shunting blood toward tissues critical for immediate physical action. - This response ensures that muscles have adequate **oxygen** and **nutrients** to support intense activity, enabling a quick escape or confrontation. *Increased blood flow to the skin* - During fight-or-flight, the body prioritizes essential organs, causing **vasoconstriction** in the skin to redirect blood flow away from non-essential areas. - This redirection helps to conserve blood and reduce potential blood loss from surface injuries. *Bronchoconstriction* - **Epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** actually cause **bronchodilation**, leading to the relaxation of airway smooth muscles. - This effect increases the diameter of the airways, allowing more air to enter and exit the lungs, thereby enhancing **oxygen intake** and carbon dioxide expulsion. *Decreased heart rate* - The primary effect of **epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** is to **increase heart rate** and myocardial contractility. - This cardiac acceleration enhances **cardiac output**, ensuring rapid and efficient delivery of oxygenated blood throughout the body to meet the demands of stress.
Question 256: Maximum density of muscle spindle is found in?
- A. Calf muscle
- B. Lumbricals (Correct Answer)
- C. Triceps
- D. Quadriceps muscle
Explanation: ***Lumbricals*** - **Lumbricals** are small, intricate muscles in the hand, responsible for fine motor control and precise movements like grasping and manipulating objects. - The high density of **muscle spindles** in lumbricals allows for extremely accurate feedback on muscle length and tension, crucial for **proprioception** and delicate tasks. *Calf muscle* - **Calf muscles** (gastrocnemius and soleus) are large muscles primarily involved in powerful movements like walking and running. - While they do contain muscle spindles for proprioception, their density is lower compared to muscles involved in fine motor control. *Quadriceps muscle* - The **quadriceps femoris** is a large muscle group in the thigh responsible for knee extension and powerful leg movements. - They contain muscle spindles to monitor muscle stretch, but not with the extreme density seen in muscles with fine motor functions. *Triceps* - The **triceps brachii** is a large muscle on the back of the upper arm, primarily responsible for elbow extension. - It has a moderate density of muscle spindles, sufficient for coordinating arm movements but not as high as muscles designed for precision.