NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Microglial cells. ***Microglial cells*** - **Microglial cells** are unique among glial cells as they originate from **mesoderm**, specifically from **monocyte/macrophage precursors** in the bone marrow [1]. - They function as the **immune cells of the central nervous system (CNS)**, scavenging for plaques, damaged neurons, and infectious agents [1]. *Macroglial cells* - This is a broad category that includes **astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells**, all of which are derived from **neuroectoderm**, not mesoderm [1]. - They perform various supportive roles but are distinct in origin from microglial cells [1]. *Oligodendrocytes* - **Oligodendrocytes** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and are responsible for forming the **myelin sheath** around axons in the CNS [2]. - Myelination is crucial for rapid and efficient nerve impulse conduction. *Ependymal cells* - **Ependymal cells** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and line the **ventricles of the brain** and the **central canal of the spinal cord**. - They play a role in the production and circulation of **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**.

Q: Trigone of bladder is derived from?

Mesonephric duct. The trigone of the bladder is formed from the caudal ends of the **mesonephric ducts**, which are absorbed into the primitive bladder wall [1]. This mesenchymal origin explains why the trigone has a smooth lining [1] and is less prone to infection compared to the rest of the bladder. *Paramesonephric duct* - The **paramesonephric ducts** (Müllerian ducts) are involved in forming the female reproductive organs, specifically the fallopian tubes, uterus [2], and upper vagina. - They do not contribute to the formation of the urinary bladder or its trigone. *Absorbed anal membrane* - The **anal membrane** separates the endoderm-derived hindgut from the ectoderm-derived anal pit. - Its absorption is relevant to the development of the anus, not the urinary bladder. *Mullerian duct* - The **Müllerian ducts** are synonymous with the paramesonephric ducts and are primarily involved in the development of the female reproductive tract [2]. - They play no role in the development of the urinary bladder or its trigone.

Q: Which amino acid is not involved in transamination?

Lysine. ***Lysine*** - **Lysine** cannot undergo transamination because it lacks the structural requirements for typical transaminase enzymes. - While lysine has both an **α-amino group** and an **ε-amino group**, its metabolic pathway involves **oxidative deamination** rather than transamination. - Along with **threonine**, lysine is one of only two amino acids that do not participate in transamination reactions. *Alanine* - **Alanine** is a major substrate for transamination, readily converting to pyruvate via **alanine transaminase (ALT)**. - This reaction involves the transfer of its **α-amino group** to an α-keto acid, typically α-ketoglutarate, forming glutamate. *Aspartate* - **Aspartate** is actively involved in transamination, converting to oxaloacetate via **aspartate transaminase (AST)**. - Its **α-amino group** is easily transferred to α-ketoglutarate, forming glutamate. *Histidine* - **Histidine** can undergo transamination, though less commonly cited as a primary substrate compared to aspartate and alanine. - It can transfer its **α-amino group** to an α-keto acid, leading to the formation of imidazolepyruvate.

Q: Bacteria most commonly involved in bowel decomposition after death is?

Clostridium perfringens. ***Clostridium perfringens*** - This bacterium is a ubiquitous **anaerobe** in the gut and is known for its rapid proliferation after death, producing gases that contribute to **bloating and decomposition**. - It is a primary cause of **gas gangrene** in living individuals, reflecting its tissue-destructive capabilities, which extend to post-mortem changes. - Produces large amounts of **hydrogen and CO2**, making it the most significant contributor to post-mortem gas formation and putrefaction. *Streptococcus pyogenes* - While a significant pathogen in life, causing conditions like **strep throat** and **necrotizing fasciitis**, it is not the primary agent of putrefaction. - Its role in post-mortem decomposition is generally less prominent compared to anaerobic gut flora. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - This bacterium is an opportunistic pathogen often associated with infections in immunocompromised individuals or in healthcare settings. - It is not typically identified as the most common or primary bacterium involved in the initial stages of post-mortem **bowel decomposition**, though it can be present in later stages. *Escherichia coli* - While *E. coli* is abundant in the bowel and participates in post-mortem decomposition, it is not the **most common** agent responsible for gas production and tissue decomposition. - *Clostridium perfringens* proliferates more rapidly and produces significantly more gas, making it the predominant bacterium in bowel putrefaction.

Q: The process by which antigen-specific B lymphocytes are selected and activated to proliferate and produce antibodies is called:

Clonal selection. ***Clonal selection*** - **Clonal selection** is the fundamental process by which an antigen-specific B lymphocyte is **selected** when its B cell receptor (BCR) recognizes and binds to a matching antigen. - This binding triggers the B cell to become **activated**, **proliferate** (undergo clonal expansion), and **differentiate** into plasma cells that produce antibodies specific to that antigen. - This process is the cornerstone of **adaptive immunity**, ensuring that only B cells with receptors matching the encountered antigen are stimulated to respond. *Class switching* - **Class switching** (isotype switching) occurs AFTER clonal selection and activation. - It allows already-activated B cells to change the **antibody class** they produce (from IgM to IgG, IgA, or IgE) while maintaining the **same antigen specificity**. - This process modifies effector functions but does NOT involve the initial selection and activation of antigen-specific B cells. *Group switching* - This is not a recognized term in immunology. - It does not describe any standard process of B cell activation or antibody production. *Hybridisation* - **Hybridization** refers to the formation of double-stranded nucleic acids from complementary strands or the creation of hybrid cells (e.g., hybridomas for monoclonal antibody production). - It is not the physiological process by which B lymphocytes are selected and activated in response to antigen exposure.

Q: Hyaline degeneration is found in -

Alcoholic liver disease. ***Alcoholic liver disease*** - **Mallory bodies**, a form of hyaline degeneration, are characteristic histologic findings in hepatocytes in alcoholic liver disease. - They represent aggregates of **intermediate filaments** and other proteins, indicating severe hepatocellular damage. *Acute myocardial infarction* - Characterized by **coagulative necrosis** of cardiac myocytes due to ischemia, not hyaline degeneration. - Inflammation and subsequent repair with **fibrosis** are key features. *Alzheimer's disease* - Defined by the presence of **senile plaques** (amyloid-beta deposits) and **neurofibrillary tangles** (hyperphosphorylated tau protein). - These are specific protein aggregates, distinct from hyaline degeneration of cellular components. *Acute appendicitis* - Involves acute inflammation of the appendix, leading to **neutrophilic infiltration** and often **fibrinopurulent exudate**. - There is no characteristic hyaline degeneration associated with this inflammatory process.

Q: Which of the following is a lipid insoluble beta-blocker?

Celiprolol. ***Celiprolol*** - **Celiprolol** is a **hydrophilic** (lipid-insoluble) beta-blocker, meaning it has low lipid solubility and does not readily cross the blood-brain barrier. - This property reduces the likelihood of **CNS side effects** such as nightmares and insomnia. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **lipophilic** (lipid-soluble) beta-blocker, allowing it to penetrate the central nervous system. - Its high lipid solubility contributes to a higher incidence of **CNS side effects**. *Carvedilol* - **Carvedilol** is a **lipophilic** mixed alpha and beta-blocker, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier. - This can lead to central nervous system effects, although its primary clinical use is in heart failure and hypertension. *Pindolol* - **Pindolol** is a **lipophilic** beta-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA). - Its lipid solubility allows it to enter the brain, potentially causing **CNS-related side effects**.

Q: In zero gravity, the V/Q ratio is?

1. ***Correct: 1*** - In **zero gravity**, the normal physiological effects of gravity on both ventilation and perfusion are eliminated, leading to a more uniform distribution. - Without gravity, blood flow and gas distribution become more even throughout the lungs, resulting in a V/Q ratio that approaches **unity (1)** across all lung regions. - This represents the ideal physiological state where ventilation perfectly matches perfusion. *Incorrect: 0.8* - A V/Q ratio of **0.8** represents the **average normal V/Q ratio** in an upright individual on Earth, where gravity creates disparities in ventilation and perfusion. - This value is an average, with regional variations (apex ~3.3, base ~0.6) in the lungs; it does not reflect the uniform conditions of zero gravity. *Incorrect: 2* - A V/Q ratio of **2** would indicate a significant **ventilation-perfusion mismatch** where ventilation greatly exceeds perfusion. - This scenario suggests substantial **dead space ventilation**, which is not the expected outcome in a zero-gravity environment where distribution is balanced. *Incorrect: 3* - A V/Q ratio of **3** represents an even more extreme case of **ventilation exceeding perfusion**, indicating severe physiologic dead space. - Such a high V/Q ratio would signify a major functional impairment, which is contrary to the more ideal and uniform distribution expected in zero gravity.

Q: Which of the following structures contains baroreceptors that detect changes in blood pressure?

Carotid sinus. ***Carotid sinus*** - The **carotid sinus** is a dilation at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery, containing **baroreceptors** sensitive to changes in blood pressure [1]. - These baroreceptors are **mechanoreceptors** that respond to the stretching of the vessel wall due to increased arterial pressure, sending signals to the brainstem to regulate blood pressure. *Carotid body* - The **carotid body** is a chemoreceptor that primarily detects changes in **blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH** levels, not blood pressure [2]. - It plays a crucial role in regulating **respiration** in response to hypoxemia. *Aortic body* - The **aortic body** is a **chemoreceptor** located near the aortic arch that primarily monitors **blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels**. - Note: While the aortic body itself is a chemoreceptor, the **aortic arch** (a different structure) does contain baroreceptors [1]. However, this option specifically refers to the aortic body, which is not a baroreceptor. - The aortic body contributes to the regulation of **respiration** in response to hypoxemia, not directly blood pressure. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **carotid sinus** is a well-known site for baroreceptors involved in blood pressure regulation.

Question 1

Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Accepted Answer

Microglial cells

Answer

Macroglial cells

Answer

Oligodendrocytes

Answer

Ependymal cells

Question 2

Trigone of bladder is derived from?

Accepted Answer

Mesonephric duct

Answer

Paramesonephric duct

Answer

Absorbed anal membrane

Answer

Mullerian duct

Question 3

Which amino acid is not involved in transamination?

Accepted Answer

Lysine

Answer

Alanine

Answer

Aspartate

Answer

Histidine

Question 4

Bacteria most commonly involved in bowel decomposition after death is?

Accepted Answer

Clostridium perfringens

Answer

Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer

Escherichia coli

Question 5

The process by which antigen-specific B lymphocytes are selected and activated to proliferate and produce antibodies is called:

Accepted Answer

Clonal selection

Answer

Class switching

Answer

Group switching

Answer

Hybridisation

Question 6

Hyaline degeneration is found in -

Accepted Answer

Alcoholic liver disease

Answer

Alzheimer's disease

Answer

Acute myocardial infarction

Answer

Acute appendicitis

Question 7

Which of the following is a lipid insoluble beta-blocker?

Accepted Answer

Celiprolol

Answer

Timolol

Answer

Carvedilol

Answer

Pindolol

Question 8

In zero gravity, the V/Q ratio is?

Accepted Answer

1

Answer

0.8

Answer

2

Answer

3

Question 9

What is the PRIMARY mechanism by which the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger functions in cardiac muscle cells?

Accepted Answer

Na+-Ca2+ exchanger acts to remove Ca2+ from heart muscle cells

Answer

Na+-Ca2+ exchanger requires ATP directly

Answer

The Na+-Ca2+ exchanger operates in reverse mode during normal cardiac contraction

Answer

The Na+-Ca2+ exchanger primarily moves Ca2+ into cardiac muscle cells during systole

Question 10

Which of the following structures contains baroreceptors that detect changes in blood pressure?

Accepted Answer

Carotid sinus

Answer

Carotid body

Answer

Aortic body

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Forensic Medicine

Microbiology

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology